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Suppose that the real risk-free rate, r*, is 4% and that inflation is usual to be 8% in Year 1, 5% in Year 2, and 4% thereafter. Suppose also that all Treasury securities are highly liquid and free of default risk. If 2-year and 5-year Treasury notes both yield 10%, what is the dissimilarity in the maturity risk premiums (MRPs) on the two notes; that is, what is MRP5 minus MRP2?
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What are the various strategies behind selected low (e.g., zero) or high coupon rates when issuing bonds?
Using CAPM's formula, Return on equity = Risk-free rate + Beta*(Expected market return - risk-free rate) With the given information, Return on equity = 1% + 1.7*(9% - 1%)
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Suppose the interest rate for a one-period bond is 4%. (a) What is the price of an asset paying (1,1,1) which means 1 after 1 period, 1 after 2 periods, and 1 after 3 periods.
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