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As mentioned in the attached reading on Revolutionary radicalism, the colonial response to British laws following the French and Indian War was extremely violent in many cases. Many would argue that it was the responsibility of the colonists to pay taxes such as those presented by Britain in the form of The Stamp Act, Sugar Act, and Tea Act.
1) To what extent were the colonists justified in the reactions to Britain's increased involvement in the colonies after the French and Indian War? Point to specific instances where the colonists were or were not justified in their reactions.
2) Were the British justified in their increased involvement in the colonies, such as through new forms of taxation? In both cases, use specific examples to support your arguments. Cite all of your sources.
Does anyone have any insight into Discussion Question, This was not discussed in class.
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