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Is it possible to use a constant WACC in the valuation of a company with a changing debt?
Theoretically, the WACC can only be constant if a constant debt is expected. If the debt changes from one year to the next, the WACC changes as well. In order to value companies in which debt changes dramatically, the APV (Adjusted Present Value) is simpler and more intuitive. It is possible to use a constant WACC (the weighted average of the WACC of the dissimilar years) when debt changes, but it is a number that does not have anything to do with the WACC in a certain year.
What are the assumptions of MM(Modigliani Miller) approach?
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