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Why do you think you are asked to do valuation given an array of discount rates?
a. Would it not be extra accurate to utilize, for intsnces , CAPM to calculate cost of equity and then use the result of that calculation to find out firm value??
b. Do you think your work loses/gains accuracy by giving discounting FCFs by an array of discount rates ("theoretical WACCs)? Why or why not?
what is panning
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