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In American foreign policy, "appeasement" has become a dirty word. Yet, in the two centuries after 1607, the expansion of British America and of the United States was unwittingly abetted by the appeasement strategies pursued by Indians. What evidence supports this interpretation? How might the statement be modified to more accurately describe the diplomatic strategies of Indians?
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Discuss three of the one-cause explanations of the universe. Which makes the most sense and why?
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