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Why do the criminal and civil law sometimes overlap

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Should morality, in and of itself, be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as criminal? Give reasons to support your view.

What are the chief distinctions between the civil and criminal law? Why do the criminal and civil law sometimes overlap?

To what extent is the English common law significant in contemporary American criminal law?

What is the essential difference between substantive criminal law and procedural criminal law? Can you give examples of each?

Reference no: EM131836341

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