Why did mark twain refer to period between the civil war

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Question:

Why did Mark Twain refer to the period between the Civil War and the turn of the 20th century as the "Gilded Age? In what specific ways did government assist big business while simultaneously refusing to aid the poor? In what specific ways did the wealthy justify the fact that so many people were poor during an age of prosperity? Do you view the wealthy businessmen who profited during the era as "captains of industry" or as "robber barons?" Explain your answer.

Reference no: EM133791795

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