Why did france and britain adopt a policy of appeasement

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It would be great if you could help me understand these questions...I know the background, I was just wondering about the following questions.

1.) Why did France find it difficult to achieve security after the Versailles Treaty? Was the invasion of the Ruhr wise?

2.) Was the failure of the Weimar Republic in German inevitable? What were the Republic's greatest strengths and weaknesses (both internal and external)?

3.) Why did France and Britain adopt a policy of appeasement in the 1930's? Did the West buy valuable time to rearm at Munich in 1938?

 

Reference no: EM13896414

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