Reference no: EM131586086
Assignment
1. The cells in the epidermis include all of the following except _____________
A. keratinocytes
B. merkel cells
C. melanocytes
D. dendritic (Langerhan's) cells
E. All of these are found in the epidermis
2. The stratum spinosum is the location for the cells of which potentially metastatic cancer, as per lecture?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Malignant Melanoma
C. Keratocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. The stratum granulosum demonstrates the following changes.
A. keratohyaline granules that form inside the cells of this layer
B. cells flatten and the nuclei deteriorate
C. Both of these are true
D. Neither of these are true
4. The stratum lucidum is the clear layer that is only seen in ______________
A. The skin of the elderly
B. People of color
C. The palms and the soles
D. Facial skin
5. The degree of pigment of someone's skin is related to ___________________
A. the size of melanocytes present
B. the activity/melanin production of the melanocytes
C. the position of the melanocytes
D. all of these contribute to skin pigmentation
6. The dermis can be best described as a __________________
A. superficial layer of loose areolar connective tissue and a deeper layer of dense regular connective tissue
B. superficial and deep layers of differing thickness, both composed of loose connective tissue
C. superficial layer of dense connective tissue and a deeper layer loose areolar connective tissue
D. superficial layer of loose areolar connective tissue and a deeper layer of dense, irregular connective tissue
7. The dermal layers may be best described as _____________________
A. equal in thickness
B. superficial visibly thinner than the deep layer
C. deep layer visibly thinner than the superficial layer
D. varying with the genetic makeup of the individual
8. The juncture of the epidermis and dermis can best be described as ______________
A. relatively uniform juncture, one layer on top of the other
B. irregular in appearance
C. a series of ridges and pegs that increase the surface area of the juncture
D. consistent with all of these depending on the location in the body
9. Which of these structures is not located in the dermis
A. hair follicles
B. sweat glands
C. meissner's corpuscles
D. free nerve endings
E. all of these are found in the dermis
10. Skin pigmentation is a function of the amount of_____________________
A. melanin
B. carotene
C. hemoglobin
D. A & B
E. A, B & C
11. An analogous/similar structure to the hair follicle on the nail is the _______________-
A. cuticle
B. matrix
C. hyponychium
D. nail plate
E. nail bed
12. Hair color, unless artificially acquired, is related to _______________
A. melanin production in the follicle
B. air content with combined with the melanin
C. hemoglobin
D. A & B both contribute
E. A, B and C all contribute to hair color
13. The moon shaped area noted at the base of the fingernails, less often seen in toenails, is the ________________
A. Nail bed
B. Nail plate
C. Lunule
D. Eponychium
14. Hairs are classified by different terminology, the term associated with hairs that grow and mostly need to be trimmed periodically is _______-
A. terminal
B. trichus
C. lanugo
D. partum
15. The skin forms a significant barrier to infection, this barrier is due _________________ activities, as presented in lecture.
A. physical
B. chemical
C. biological
D. A & B only
E. A, B & C
16. The skin acts to control excess temperature of the body by ________________
A. Decreasing perspiration loss to conserve water and maintain hydration
B. Increasing perspiration to achieve cooling by evaporation
C. Increasing perspiration to achieve cooling by loss of electrolytes
D. Increasing perspiration and increasing metabolic rate and skin production to transfer heat in a better utilizable fashion
17. The skin can be considered an endocrine gland, as noted in lecture,________________________-
A. because it has multiple ducts for perspiration to be secreted
B. because the formation of melanin is controlled by the release of skin hormones
C. because of the activation of Vitamin D with exposure to sunlight, which acts as a hormone
D. because mitotic activity of skin cells is a function of skin secretions
E. the skin is not an endocrine gland
18. The ultraviolet rays of sunlight during tanning act upon __________________-
A. the dermal layers
B. the statum corneum
C. the keratinocytes
D. the melanocytes
E. all the cell structures in the epidermis
19. The most common cause of basal cell carcinomas, as noted in lecture, has been related directly to __________________-
A. certain skin care agents
B. tattooing and piercings
C. ultraviolet light and damage to cellular DNA
D. infra red rays
E. usually genetic causes
20. Of all the skin cancers, the __________________, is considered the most dangerous. The prognosis worsens with the ______________ of the cancer(lesion)
A. squamous cell carcinoma, irregularity
B. basal cell cacinoma, age
C. melanoma, location
D. melanoma, depth
E. squamous cell carcinoma equally dangerous, location
21. In the rule of 9's, the anterior torso accounts for _____% of the body
A. 9 C. 36
B. 18 D. 27
22. By definition a second degree burn is also a __________________, and is characterized by ____________________--
A. partial thickness burn, scarring
B. full thickness burn, scarring
C. partial thickness burn, blistering
D. full thickness burn, tissue necrosis
E. moderate thickness, fluid loss
Answer the following either A(true) or B(false)
23. The most immediate threats to a burn patient are infection and fluid loss
24. Both extreme heat and cold can produce similar damage to skin
Choose the best answer:
25. The functions of bone include all of the following except:
A. structural support
B. hematopoiesis
C. mineral storage
D. organ protection
E. all of these are functions of bone
26. A frosted glass appearance, flexibility and resilience are characteristics of this the most abundant skeletal cartilage.
A. hyaline
B. elastic
C. fibrous
D. calcified
27 The general structure of flat bone can be best described as __________
A. cortical bone throughout
B. cortical bone sandwiching cancellous bone
C. cancellous bone sandwiching cortical bone
D. cortical bone sandwiching only red and yellow bone marrow
28. . A tissue that contains both the osteoblasts and osteoclasts, activated during fracture repair, and the source of most fracture healing as per lecture, is the _____________
A. haversian canal
B. osteon
C. periosteum
D. endosteum
29. The principle functioning unit of compact bone is the ______________
A. osteocyte
B. lacuna
C. osteon
D. trabeculae
E. A & B
30. The hydroxyapatite crystals are mostly composed of which of the following mineral salts, as per lecture.
A. calcium phosphate
B. sulfur phosphate
C. magnesium phosphate
D. calcium sulfate
31. The tree-like concentric rings in cortical bone are known as ___________
A. lamellae
B. canaliculi
C. Volkmann's Canals
D. Osteomata
32. Enchondral bone formation is the term that indicates ______________.
A. the calcification of bone
B. the formation of bone from a cartilage shell
C. chondrocytes replacing bone cells during arthritic changes
D. the bone that forms secondary to osteoporosis
E. intramembranous bone formation
33. On X-ray in growing bone, a clear zone is sometimes seen toward the ends of the shaft of long bones, this is known as .
A. a greenstick fracture
B. the zone of incomplete maturation
C. the epiphyseal or growth plate
D. the nutrient foramina
34. The hormone that is active in resorbing(breaking down) bone and releasing calcium into the bloodstream(increasing blood Ca++) is _____________.
A. calcitonin
B. vitamin D
C. parathyroid hormone
D. growth hormone
35 . Which hormone is most active in facilitating absorption of Calcium from the GI tract?
A. calcitonin
B. insulin
C. parathyroid hormone
D. Vitamin D
E. Growth Hormone
36. A fracture is best defined as ____________.
A. an interruption in the overall integrity of the bone
B. an injury that causes both pain and bleeding, with or without cell damage
C. significant injury that causes bone to fragment into at least 2 pieces
D. damage to bone accompanied by visible damage to the skin
E. C & D
37. Following the initial inflammatory response, _________ formation occurs in fracture healing
A. boney bridge
B. boney union
C. hematoma and callous formation
D. endosteal budding
38. A fracture that causes the bone to break into 3 or more fragments, therefore with more than 1 fracture line is known as a ______________ fracture
A. compound
B. comminuted
C. spiral
D. transverse
39. A significant loss of bone substance, including both mineral content and matrix, is commonly referred to as _______________
A. Osteomalacia
B. Paget's disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteopetrosis
40. Bones, by weight, are mostly composed of ___________________
A. Inorganic salts
B. Organic Matrix
C. Collagen fibers
D. Osteocytes
E. Blood forming tissue
41. The Blood Supply of Bone can be best described as ___________
A. Relatively avascular or minimal due to the density of bone
B. Very generous with multiple blood vessels
C. Moderate and slightly increased during growth
D. Variable with regard to gender and race.
42. A fracture with bone penetrating the skin and exposed to the air is known as a ___________ fracture
A. open
B. closed
C. comminuted
D. complex
43. The ends of bones in joints are covered in ____________
A. thick fibrous tissue
B. hyaline cartilage
C. elastin polymers
D. A combination of all of these
44. Joints are held together along the sides by _______________
A. boney bridges
B. ligaments
C. fatty tissue
D. none of these is correct
45. An example of an inflammatory joint disease is ______________
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Yellow fever
C. Post traumatic degeneration
D. Bulging disc disease
Match the following joint shapes with the joints of the following key. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.
A. ball and socket
B. hinge
C. pivot
D. saddle
E. condyloid
46. Shoulder- ball and socket
47. Elbow- hinge
48. base of first metacarpal and trapezium- saddle
49. Atlanto-axial ( cervical vertebrae 1 and 2) - pivot
50. Hip - ball and socket.