Reference no: EM131228141
Part 1
1. A diverse team may be able to find better solutions because of
a. the homogeneity of personality types
b. similar mindset
c. divergent thinking processes
d. similarity in conceptualizing problems
2. Which of the following is a potential problem that can emerge when there is increasing employee diversity?
a. pressures toward homogenization
b. lower cohesiveness
c. interpersonal conflict and tension
d. all of the above
3. A diversity program
a. is a political solution to societal ills
b. is another name for affirmative action
c. recognizes an organization's need to employ women and minorities in order to succeed
d. is a government-mandated program
4. To learn to work with a diverse workforce, individual employees should
a. show respect for others no matter how different they are from you
b. go out of your way to work with people who are different from you
c. avoid being overly sensitive to perceived slights by other employees who are different from you
d. all of the above
5. Lower-level managers and employees are likely to take diversity seriously if senior executives are
a. giving diversity management a high priority
b. taking an active role in diversity management
c. attending multiple meetings on diversity issues
d. all of the above
6. Announcing a diversity program without corporate support
a. holds managers accountable for diversity
b. sends the message the company is simply going through the motions
c. encourages diversity networks
d. suggests that executives have empowered line managers to take the lead in diversity management
7. Accountability tools used by companies to ensure the implementation of diversity strategies include all of the following except
a. 360-degree feedback
b. employee surveys
c. diversity training
d. self-evaluations
8. Developmental activities to improve diversity management include
a. diversity learning labs
b. apprenticeships
c. senior mentoring
d. all of the above
9. Because people are attracted to others they believe are similar to themselves, there is a natural tendency for organizations to
a. become demographically homogeneous
b. become ethnocentric
c. become less cohesive
d. experience more conflict and tension
10. Which of the following is an example of gender differences in communication as presented by Deborah Tannen?
a. People tend to judge men for what they say and do while women are often judged by how they look and dress.
b. Men tend to engage in rapport talk while women engage in report talk.
c. Women tend to be direct when making requests and males tend to be more indirect.
d. Men have a greater information focus while women have more of an image focus.
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of a team?
a. shared leadership roles
b. variable input from members solicited by the group leader
c. individual work assignments
d. all of the above
12. To be fully functional, self-managed team members need to be trained in
a. technical skills
b. management skills
c. interpersonal skills
d. all of the above
13. The type of team that has the greatest potential for misunderstandings to occur is the
a. project team
b. self-managed team
c. parallel team
d. virtual team
14. Which is not one of the stages of team development?
a. forming
b. dorming
c. storming
d. adjourning
15. In the stage of team development, the basic ground rules are established.
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
16. An important role for team leaders in the storming stage of development is
a. establishing ground rules
b. identifying the purpose of the team
c. defusing the negative aspects of conflict to achieve harmony and cohesion
d. capturing the synergies between individuals with complementary skills
17. The final stage of group development is
a. forming
b. storming
c. adjourning
d. performing
18. The task-facilitating role includes
a. using humor to put others at ease
b. recognizing the members' contributions
c. providing facts and data
d. exuding enthusiasm to motivate others
19. The relationship-building role includes
a. asking questions
b. providing good clarification
c. providing facts and data
d. exuding enthusiasm to motivate others
20. The role of the team leader is
a. similar to that of a coach
b. providing feedback to team members
c. expressing a shared vision for the team
d. all of the above
21. Which of the following is true concerning leaders and managers?
a All managers are leaders; all leaders are not managers.
b. Not all leaders are managers; not all managers are leaders.
c All managers are leaders; all leaders are managers.
d. Not all leaders are managers; all managers are leaders.
22. Leadership by managers includes
a. supervising
b. acting as boundary spanners
c. meeting personal needs of subordinates
d. all of the above
23. exercise influence in a more informal manner while occupy formal decision-making positions.
a. Managers; supervisors
b. Leaders; managers
c. Managers; leaders
d. Top executives; managers
24. Which power base does not have to actually be used to exert influence?
a. coercive
b. legitimate
c. referent
d. expert
25. When others derive satisfaction by identifying with Mary, she has which type of power?
a. coercive
b. legitimate
c. referent
d. expert
26. Which is not one of the major traditional approaches to understanding leadership?
a. production-centered leadership
b. trait approach
c. behavioral approach
d. situational approach
27. The approach to understanding leadership that attempts to find a personality profile that distinguishes leaders from non-leaders is
a. the behavioral approach
b. the trait approach
c. the situational approach
d. the production-centered approach
28. The approach to leadership that attempts to identify what good leaders do is
a. the behavioral approach
b. the trait approach
c. the situational approach
d. the production-centered approach
29. The Ohio State University and the University of Michigan studies took which approach to understanding leadership?
a. the behavioral approach
b. the trait approach
c. the situational approach
d. the managerial grid
30. The two dimensions of leadership studied in the Ohio State research were
a. consideration and initiating structure
b. production-oriented and employee-oriented behaviors
c. concern for production and concern for people
d. team management and country club management
31. According to Blake and Mouton, the impoverished manager is in concern for people and in concern for production.
a. high; high
b. low; low
c. high; low
d. low; high
32. Jason avoids making decisions. As a result, his employees have low satisfaction levels and low performance levels. Which leadership style is Jason using?
a. democratic
b. autocratic
c. laissez-faire
d. country club
33. To be most effective and motivate people, goals should be
a. unattainable to require people to stretch
b. specific, quantifiable, and measurable
c. intangible to allow for flexibility
d. all of the above
34. An approach to goal setting that allows the firm to implement overall organizational objectives by breaking them down into specific objectives assigned to different units and individuals in the firm in a cascading fashion is referred to as
a. reinforcement theory
b. path-goal theory
c. MBO
d. attribution theory
35. Which reinforcement technique is Matt using if he praises his subordinate for a job well done?
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. extinction
d. punishment
36. Which reinforcement technique is Jim using if he docks Mary's pay when she comes in late to work?
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. extinction
d. punishment
37. Which reinforcement technique is Jennifer using if she refrains from laughing at Matt's jokes when they have important matters to discuss?
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. extinction
d. punishment
38. Which reinforcement technique is Deanna using if she complains about Jeff's lack of work effort and stops only when he picks up the pace?
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. extinction
d. punishment
39. Which of the following is not a need theory of motivation?
a. Maslow's hierarchy
b. Alderfer s ERG theory
c. McClelland 's Need theory
d. House's path-goal theory
40. Which theory reminds managers that providing additional rewards to meet a need will motivate people only if the need has not already been satisfied?
a. McClelland's Need theory
b. Attribution theory
c. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
d. Reinforcement theory
Part 2
1. Which of the following is not a stage of operations management?
a. acquiring inputs
b. controlling the conversion processes
c. planning the strategy of the organization
d. delivering the output
2. The foundation of operations management is acquiring inputs
b. delivering the output
c. planning
d. determining the customer
3. In the , the firm begins with an assessment of whether they will lose or gain a competitive advantage by outsourcing the product or some aspect of its production.
a. strategic planning process
b. make-buy analysis
c. conversion process
d. output process
4. The Widget Company may base its decision of where to locate its facilities on
a. the availability of labor
b. the cost of energy
c. how close to customers they need to be
d. all of the above
5. The process of analyzing the design to determine the materials and parts that it requires in the production process is known as
a. MRP
b. facilities layout design
c. make-buy analysis
d. JIT
6. systems are used to keep inventory levels more or less constant.
a. Conversion
b. Reordering
c. Inventory
d. Statistical process
7. When the operations manager determines a minimum level of inventory then reorders inputs when this level is reached, she is using
a. fixed-interval reordering
b. a conversion process
c. MRP
d. fixed-point reordering
8. An effective conversion process
a. converts the inputs into the final product
b. lowers the cost of creating the product
c. creates a better product for the same cost
d. all of the above
9. Which of .the following is not an appropriate tool for determining an efficient sequence and monitoring for activities in the conversion process?
a. PERT network
b. Gantt chart
c. Deming wheel
d. Load chart
10. Which tool for monitoring the conversion process is a visual sequence of the process steps?
a. Gantt chart
b. PDCA cycle
c. Deming wheel
d. PERT chart
11. Which tool for monitoring the conversion process would list the people involved in each step and the time frame for their involvement?
a. PDCA cycle
b. PERT chart
c. Deming wheel
d. Load chart
12. A particularly complex project's conversion activities might best be monitored with a
a. PDCA cycle
b. PERT network
c. Gantt chart
d. load chart
13. Given the size of the product, an aircraft manufacturer would be most likely to use a layout.
a. product
b. process
c. fixed-position
d. facilities
14. The employee and equipment stay in one workstation as the product moves through the system in a layout.
a. product
b. process
c. fixed-position
d. facilities
15. The assembly line at the BMW factory in Regensburg, Germany, that can accommodate several different models of the car simultaneously is an example of
a. a fixed-position layout
b. flexible manufacturing
c. statistical process control
d. MRP
16. The measurement of how well an organization utilizes all of its resources to produce its outputs is known as
a. ORR activity
b. total factor productivity
c. partial productivity
d. TQM
17. A quality management approach emphasizes
a. the empowerment of workers and their responsibility for the quality of the outcomes of work processes
b. employee motivation
c. employee ability levels
d. a separate quality inspector
18. ______ ultimately decide what constitutes quality through
a. Customers; purchasing decisions
b. Managers; operations decisions
c. Employees; quality circles
d. Managers; company and employee goals
19. The value of JIT inventory systems is
a. saving on warehouse space and labor
b. ensuring financial resources are not tied up in inputs waiting to be used
c. identifying defects in input rather quickly
d. all of the above
20. Feedforward control is used to ensure
a. control takes place as the work is being carried out
b. corrections are made after the process has been completed
c. problems are prevented before they occur
d. quality standards are met.