What would be the basis for making this distinction

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Medicare and Medicaid Policy Differences

Although many Medicare beneficiaries are poor, there is no means test (income- or resource-specific eligibility level) to determine eligibility like there is with Medicaid. Is there a good public policy reason for this difference? What would be the basis for making this distinction? Does the government have a different role to play in providing healthcare based on the population involved?

Reference no: EM133654040

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