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A firm has entered into a 4-year, annual-pay, 6% plain vanilla interest rate swap with a notional principal value of $10,000,000. The firm is the fixed rate payer (i.e. the swap dealer is the floating rate payer) and the following spot rates are observed and expected over the next three years:
• 1-year LIBOR today = 5%.
• Expected 1-year LIBOR in a year = 6%.
• Expected 1-year LIBOR in two years = 7%.
Based solely on this information, what would be (1) the first net payment amount and (2) the direction (e.g. from the firm to the swap dealer or vice versa)?
Which of the following groups of accounts contains only those that normally have credit balances? Accounts Payable, Service Revenue, and Retained Earnings Cash,
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What is the present value of these cash flows if the appropriate discount rate is 8 percent?
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