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The European Central Bank normally sets monetary policy by choosing 1 year real interest rates according to the following Taylor Rule:
After the Global Financial Crisis , the output gap was - 3% and the expected inflation rate was 0%.
What value should the European Central Bank have set real and nominal interest rates if it wanted to follow the Taylor Rule? Why may this not be possible? If the central bank cannot set them as low as it wants, what do you think happens to the speed at which the economy attains their desired inflation and output targets?
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In using the Taylor Rule as a guideline for monetary policy, what are the pros and cons of using forecasted values of inflation and output rather than observed values of these variables?
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