What might this suggest in terms of the cost-effectiveness

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Question: If we alter the diagnostic threshold for "disease" based on cholesterol levels to include those with lower cholesterol levels, what do we do thereby to the prevalence of this "disease"? These new patients appear to be less severely "ill" patients (they used to be "normal"). What does this say about their capacity to benefit from treatment compared to those who were "ill" by the previous definition?" What might this suggest in terms of the cost-effectiveness of treating the newly defined "ill" patients compared to those previously defined as ill? Discuss, briefly.

Reference no: EM133287385

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