What kind of utility function of wealth might be consistent

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What kind of utility function of wealth might be consistent with an individual gambling and paying insurance at the same time?

Suppose that A>B>C>D and that the utilities of these alternatives satisfy U(A) + U(D) = U(B) + U(C).

Is it true that U(-B + is greater than U(4/1 + +D) because the former has a smaller variance? Why or why not?

Reference no: EM131245438

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