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Given the following spot yield curve, what should be the fixed rate so that the NPV of the 4- year SWAP is zero.
Spot Rates
R01 = 13.750%
R02 = 14.500%
R03 = 15.250%
R04 = 16.000%
Problem 1: Instead of this fixed SWAP rate, if bank agreed to receive fixed payments based on 15.00% fixed rate and pay floating payments implied by the above yield curve, what is the NPV (to fixed payer) of this SWAP that has a notional principal of $100 million?
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