Reference no: EM132469878

CPCCBC4010B - Apply structural principles to residential low-rise constructions

Question 1
Match each mechanical property with an appropriate description.
The mechanical properties are:
• Hardness
• Toughness
• Elasticity
• Brittleness
• Ductility
• Plasticity
• Malleability
• Strength.
The descriptions are:
• Resistance to the load that will just cause fracture
• Ability to be drawn out in the direction of its length
• Material deforms with loading and returns to original shape when loads are removed
• Material retains its deformed shape when load is removed
• Material can be worked into various shapes
• Material will break without elongation
• Resistance to fracture by repeated bending or twisting
• Degree of resistance to indentation or abrasion.

Question 2. How do you write 3,258,967 mm4 to four significant figures?
A. 3.26 x 106 mm4
B. 3.258 x 106 mm4
C. 3.259 x 106 mm4
D. 3.3 x 106 mm4

Question 3. What is the value of Ixx for beam A?
A. 0.333 x 106 mm4
B. 3.33 x 106 mm4
C. 33.3 x 106 mm4
D. 2.08 x 106 mm4

Question 4. What is the value of Ixx for beam B?
A. 20.8 x 106 mm4
B. 2.08 x 106 mm4
C. 0.208 x 106 mm4
D. 33.3 x 106 mm4

Question 5. Based on a rectangle with the dimensions of b = 50 mm and d = 200 mm, use the formula Zxx = (b by d to the power of two) divided by six, mm3 to calculate the section modules for beam A
A. 3.33 x 103 mm3
B. 33.3 x 103 mm3
C. 83.3 x 103 mm3
D. 333.3 x 103 mm3

Question 6. Based on a rectangle with the dimensions of b = 200 m and d = 50 mm use the formula Zxx = (b by d to the power of two) divided by six, mm3 to calculate the section modulus for beam B.
A. 8.33 x 103 mm3
B. 33.3 x 103 mm3
C. 83.3 x 103 mm3
D. 833.3 x 103 mm3

Question 7. The equation for calculating the radius of gyration is ryy = the square root of I divided by A.
For the rectangle with dimension of b = 50 mm and d= 200 mm, Iyy = 2.08 x 106 mm4.
Using this information calculate the value of the radius of gyration ryy about the y-y axis.
A. 57.7 mm
B. 5.77 mm
C. 14.4 mm
D. 144 mm

Question 9. What does the centroid tell us about a structure?
A. The line of symmetry
B. The best place to position service holes
C. The centre of gravity
D. The position where service holes should be avoided
E. The point where stresses will be greatest

Question 10. What is the second moment of area?
A. Moment of inertia
B. A section property which disregards the material's strength
C. The ability of a shape to resist bending
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 11. What is the second moment of area / about the x-x axis for a section 250 mm high x 50 mm Wide?
A. 2.6 x 106 mm3
B. 2.6 X 106 mm4
C. 2.6 x 106 mm4
D. GS x 106 mm4
E. 65 x 106 mm3

Question 12. What is the section modulus?
A. A measure of the stiffness of the shape
B. A section property which disregards the material's strength
C. The ability of a shape to resist bending
D. All of the above
E None of the above

Question 13. What is the section modulus Z for a beam 250 mm high x 50 wide about the x-x axis?
A. 5.2 x 103 mm3
B. 26 x 103 mm3
C. 520 x 103 mm3
D. 5.2 mm3
E. 5.2 x 106 mm3

Question 14. Which best describes the radius of gyration?
A. It is used to predict the buckling in a slender column
B. It is used to work out the deflection of a beam
C. It is the same as Young's modulus
D. It is used to predict the crushing in a short column
E. It is used to work out how much a column will rotate under load

Question 15. What is the least radius of gyration for a timber post with cross-sectional dimensions of 90 mm x 180 mm?
A. 82 x 103 mm3
B. 26 mm
C. 16.4 x 103 mm3
D. 52 mm
E. 6.7 x 103 mm3

Question 16. Which of the following pairs of mechanical properties are the reverse of each other?
A. Ductility and elasticity
B. Brittleness and hardness
C. Malleability and ductility
D. Strength and toughness
Elasticity and plasticity

Question 17. Which of the following are considered to be structural components?
A. Windows and doors
B. Beams and columns
C. Internal partition walls
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 18 What is the unit force?
A. neut
B. neutral
C. newtonian
D. newton
E. newtown

Question 19 Which of the following are primary loads?
A. Live loads
B. Wind loads
C. Dead loads
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 20 Which of the following components contribute to dead loads?
A. Beams
B. Columns
C. Floor slabs
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 21 What is the dead load of a hardwood beam which simply spans 6 m, has a height of 500 mm and a breadth of 100 mm and the DL rate is 11 kN/m3?
A. 66 kN
B. 27 kN
C. 3.3 kN
D. 11 kN
E. 243 N

Question 22 Live loads include which of the following?
A. People and furniture
B. People and snow
C. Furniture and Snow

Question 23 What is the live load for a bar with a floor area of 300 m2 and an LL rate of 5 kN/m2?
A. 1,500
B. 1,500 N
C. 1,500 kN
D. 1,500 kN/m

Question 24 When wind flows around a building the negative pressures are most extreme at which location?
A. Windward wall
B. Windward roof
C. Leeward roof
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 25 Wind is considered to be what type of load?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Equilibrium
D. Constant
E. Environmental

Question 26 Given the unit for stress is pascal (Pa), then 1,000 Pa equals which of the following?
A. 1 kPa
B. 100 N/m2
C. 1 kN/m2
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 27 Long continuous buildings will expand, therefore it is necessary to consider the expansion stresses. How many meters apart are control joints in a reinforced concrete structure commonly placed?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
E. 50 m

Question 28. What is meant by the term ‘load path'?
A. A track or driveway or heavy equipment
B. The total of the design loads
C. Tracking of all loads downwards along the structural elements
D. The sequence where loads are traced from foundation upwards
E. A technique designed to work out members supporting live loads.

Question 29. What reaction forces must be in operation to balance the resultant forces?
A. An upwards force of 1.5 kN and a downwards force of 1.5 kN
B. An downwards force of 3kN on both columns
C. An upwards force of 3kN on both columns
D. An upwards force of 6kN

Question 30
Which of the following statements is true for Newton's laws of motion?
1. A body in motion will eventually stop
2. A force is caused by articulation
3. Action and reaction are equal but opposite in direction
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Question 31
What properties does a force have?
1. Position
2. Direction
3. Magnitude
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Question 32
A 40 kilogram bag of cement will exert how much force on a pallet upon which it is stacked?
1. 4 N
2. 40 N
3. 400 N
4. 4 kN
5. 40 kN

Question 33
How much mass is required to produce a force of 250 kN?
1. 250,000 kg
2. 25,000 kg
3. 2,500 kg
4. 250 kg
5. 25 kg

Question 34
Which of the following statements are true for a structure in equilibrium?
A. Σ Fv = 0
B. Σ Fh = 0
C. Σ M = 0
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

Question 35
What is the force due to gravity on a 1 kg object?
9. 9.8 N
10. 9.8 kN
11. 98 N
12. 98 kN
13. 981 N

Question 36. What are the minimum and maximum distances of the service holes from the ends of the beam?
A. minimum = 1.2 m, maximum = 1.5 m
B. minimum = 1.5 minimum, maximum 1.75 m
C minimum = 1.5 m, maximum = 2.0 m
D. minimum =2.0 m, maximum 2.5 m

Question 37. What is the recommended depth of the service hole?
A. 300 mm
B. 200 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 50 mm Support

Question 38 in most types of trusses, the top chords are:
A. Ties
B. Struts

Question 39. In most types of trusses, the bottom chords are:
A. In tension
B. In compression

Question 40. Which best describes a simply supported beam?
A. A beam supported over three or more points
B. A beam supported at one end only
C. A beam which only has supports at each end
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 41. A vertical compression member (or column) may also be referred to by what other term(s)?
A. Post
B. Strut
C. Stanchion
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Question 42.
Which of the following does not affect deflection?
A. Span
B. Load
C. Shear force
D. Shape
E. Young's modulus

Question 43. Where does the maximum amount of compression occur in a simply supported beam?
A. Along the neutral axis
B. At the most extreme upper fibres
C. At the most extreme lower fibres
D. Near the supports
E. Mid span

Question 44. Where does the maximum amount of vertical shear occur within a simply supported beam?
A. Consistently over the entire length of the beam
B. Near the mid-span
C. Along the neutral axis
D. At the most extreme upper and lower fibres
E. Near the supports
Question 45. Given a simple beam spanning 10 m, how close to the supports can service holes be located?
A. 2.0 m
B. 2.5 m
C. 3.0 m
D. 3.3 m
E. 5.0 m

Question 46. Which of the following are the main types of wind bracing?
A. Thigh, P, star
B. Hip, J, cross
C. Knee, K, cross
D. Arm, K, star

Question 47
When a concrete slab is subject to 'doming', in which part of the slab is the tensile stress?
A. The lower surface of the slab
B. The upper surface of the slab
C. The stiffening beam under the slab
D. The steel reinforcement

Question 48
Which of these terms are parts of a roof truss?
A. Chord, knee, web
B. Spider, pitch, chord
C. Ankle, heel, tar
D. Web, heel, pitch
Question 49. What is the minimum bearing capacity of a concrete slab in a residential situation?
A. 25 kPa
B. 40 kPa
C. 50 kPa
D. 25 MPa
E. 50 MPa
Question 50. In what circumstances might a demolition permit be refused?
A. If the minister is not available
B. If there was no response to the permit application
C. If a planning permit is required and has not been obtained

Question 51. If there is no response in 15 days, what should you do? (Choose two options.)
A. Obtain a planning permit if one is required
B. Phone the building surveyor and tell him to hurry up
C. Give up and try elsewhere
D. Assume that the demolition permit is approved and granted if you have a planning permit or if one is not required

Question 52.
Which of the following items must be checked daily?
A. All openings and elevated free edges are properly guarded.
B. You are at the correct address.
C. Temporary hoardings, bracing, shoring and propping is tight and secure and in place as required to protect both workers and public.
D. All potential fire and safety hazards are eliminated and disconnected services are secured.
E. Emergency access routes are clear of debris.
F. Signs and balloons are in place for the garage sale.
G. Footpaths and public access are clear of demolished materials.
H. Tell the demolisher to take a long lunch break as you don't need supervision.

Question 53.
Which of these items must be checked daily?
A. The neighbours have been notified not to hang out their washing.
B. All boundaries are secured against unlawful entry.
C. No structure or part of a structure is left in such a condition that it may become dangerous, such as collapse due to wind or vibration.
D. All hazardous materials are removed or covered as required by OHS legislation.
E. Demolished materials have not been left on any floor or structure if their weight exceeds the safe carrying capacity of the floor or structure.
F. Any hazards are properly lit, guarded and marked.
G. Asbestos is left on the nature strip for the garbage pickup.
H. Partly demolished elements are stabilised and loose materials are secured against bad weather.

Question 54. Match the following six professions to two tasks related to their job.
The professions are:
1. Architect
2. Engineer
3. Draftsperson
4. Quantity surveyor
5. Land surveyor
6. Building surveyor
The tasks are:
A. Conduct critical examination of the tenders
B. Document site constraints
C. Design the structure of the footing system
D. Inspect buildings during construction
E. Write report on protection of adjoining properties
F. Conduct a boundary survey
G. Prepare measured drawings of existing building
H. Develop a design brief
I. Prepare approximate cost estimates
J. Conduct a feasibility study
K. Assess building plans which have been submitted for approval
L. Take levels on the site and produce contour plans

Question 55
Which bushfire risk category specifies that external doors must be solid core with a minimum thickness of 35 mm?
A. Medium
B. High
C. Extreme

Question 56
What must roof lights consist of when installed in a dwelling in a high bushfire attack risk category?
A. Toughened glass
B. Wired glass
C. Thermoplastic material

Question 57
The piping for water and gas supplies in a medium bushfire attack risk category are the same as for a high risk category. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Question 58
If timber is used for decking in an extreme bushfire attack risk area, it must be treated with fire retardant. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 59
Which two of the following areas are earthquake areas as defined by the BCA?
A. Areas with an acceleration coefficient less than 0.12
B. Areas with an acceleration coefficient greater than 0.15
C. Areas with an acceleration coefficient between 0.12 and 0.15
D. Areas with an acceleration coefficient less than 0.15

Question 60
Which of the following are suitable materials for footing stumps in earthquake areas?
A. Timber
B. Steel
C. Reinforced concrete
D. All of the above

Question 61
What is the minimum thickness of metal framing for buildings in an earthquake zone?
A. 1.1 mm thick
B. 1.2 mm thick
C. 1.3 mm thick
 
Question 62
When constructing a building in an area with an acceleration coefficient of 0.15 and greater, which two additional details are requirements for veneer on frame construction?
A. Details on external walls
B. Details on incorporating roof joining
C. Details on wall plates
D. Details on timber framing connectors

Question 63
Unreinforced masonry is a requirement only for buildings with an acceleration coefficient of 0.15 or greater. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 64
In the BCA Table 1.1.1 of Design wind speeds, what do the letters N and C represent?
A. N = not relevant, C = cool wind
B. N = natural wind, C = cyclonic wind
C. N = normal wind, C = cool wind
D. N = normal wind, C = cyclonic wind
Question 65
Which capital cities in Australia are in cyclonic areas?
A. All capital cities
B. All except Hobart and Melbourne
C. All except Hobart, Melbourne and Adelaide
D. Darwin, Brisbane and Perth
E. Darwin and Brisbane
 
Question 66
What is the acceleration coefficient?
A. The speed you can run when there is an earth tremor
B. A number which gives an indication of how severe earthquake ground movement is
C. The speed of light in an earthquake
D. A number that tells you how much steel bends in cyclonic winds

Question 67
Alpine areas exist in all states in Australia. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 68
In an alpine area, what is the maximum steepness for the gradient of an external ramp?
A. 1 in 10 (1:10)
B. 1 in 12 (1:12)
C. 1 in 15 (1:15)
D. 1 in 20 (1:20)

Question 69.
What is the minimum bearing capacity when using strip footings for a brick veneer dwelling?
A. 50 kPa
B. 100 kPa
C. 10 kPa
D. 150 kPa

Question 70
What can be used for stump pad footings?
A. Timber and concrete only
B. Steel and concrete only
C. Timber only
D. Timber, concrete and steel

Question 71
What does wetting of the soil cause?
A. Volume increase
B. Volume decrease
C. Increase in soil suction force
D. All of the above

Question 72
What is the most stable soil?
A. Sand
B. Rock
C. Slightly reactive clay
D. Extremely reactive clay

Question 73
What depth should pad footings be in moderately reactive clay soils?
A. 400 mm
B. 500 mm
C. 1,000 mm
D. 150 mm

Question 74
Reinforced footings are required for what type of buildings?
A. Solid brick only
B. Brick veneer only
C. Concrete block only
D. All of the above

Question 75
What does the symbol Df denote?
A. Depth of frame
B. Depth of strip footing
C. Depth of full masonry wall
D. Depth of pad footing
 
Question 80
What is the spacing required for gridded footings to support full masonry?
A. 6 m maximum in one direction
B. 6 m minimum in one direction
C. 6 m maximum in both directions
D. 6 m minimum in both directions

Question 81
When are vapour barriers required in strip footing excavations?
A. The excavation exceeds 700 mm depth in highly reactive clay soil
B. The excavation exceeds 500 mm depth in extremely reactive clay soil
C. The excavation exceeds 700 mm in sand
D. The excavation exceeds 500 mm in slightly reactive clay soil

Question 82
The base of a stepped footing excavation is always what direction?
A. Vertical and parallel to the NGL
B. Horizontal and parallel to the NGL
C. Vertical but not necessarily parallel
D. Horizontal but not necessarily parallel

Question 83
What is the most common slab footing?
A. Plain footing slab
B. Waffle raft slab
C. Stiffened footing slab
D. Stiffened raft slab

Question 84
What is the advantage of using footing slabs?
A. They need only simple form work
B. They need only simple excavation
C. They do not need internal beams
D. All of the above

Question 85
External walls in footing slab constructions must be strong enough to perform what task?
A. Support the fill
B. Support the internal beams
C. Support load bearing walls
D. Support the footings

Question 86
What is waffle raft slab construction most suitable for?
A. Rock sites
B. Sand sites
C. Highly reactive clay sites
D. Class P sites

Question 87
Concrete is poured in bulk piers approximately how many mm below the NGL?
A. 500 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1,200 mm
D. 200 mm

Question 88
What does the term ‘belling' involve?
A. Decreasing the base of a pier where soil capacity is low
B. Increasing the base of a pier where soil capacity is low
C. Decreasing the diameter of a pier where soil capacity is low
D. Increasing the diameter of a pier where soil capacity is low

Question 89
What must all DPC material be?
A. Of polyethylene
B. Water resistant
C. Impact resistant
D. Corrosion resistant

Question 90
Termites can be prevented from entering when graded stone and steel mesh are placed or secured in what manner?
A. At exposed edges
B. Around pipes
C. Around cracks in the concrete
D. All of the above

Question 91. Which concrete slab construction has no stiffening beam?
A. Slab on ground
B. Waffle raft slab
C. Stiffened raft slab
D. Infill slab

Question 92. During the scraping process, how much of the top layer is removed?
A. 50 - 100 mm
B. 150 - 200 mm
C. 100 - 150 mm
D. 200 - 250 mm

Question 93. Which of the following factors does not help calculate the excavation depth of beams?
A. Depth of vegetation
B. Width of slab
C. Allowable bearing soil below surface
D. Height of slab

Question 94. Edge rebates need to be provided in the edge stiffening beams if external walls are going to be of what type?
A. Brick veneer and full masonry
B. Full masonry only
C. Timber
D. Block only

Question 95. Is additional reinforcement needed if pipes are laid under the slab?
A. Yes
B. No
Question 96. Does slab thickness have to be increased if hot water pipes are embedded in the slab?
A. Yes
B. No
Question 97. Is a moisture barrier a plastic membrane laid under a slab?
A. Yes
B. No
Question 98. What does the term 4-L11TM mean when designated to trench bars?
A. 11 bars, 4 mm in diameter
B. 4 bars, 4 mm in diameter
C. 11 bars, 11 mm in diameter
D. 4 bars, 11 mm in diameter

Question 99. What does the term SL82 mean when designated to square mesh?
A. 8 mm diameter bars on a grid 200 mm apart
B. 82 diameter bars on a grid 20 mm apart
C. 2 mm diameter bars on a grid 80 mm apart
D. 2 mm diameter bars on a grid 200 mm apart
Question 100. What is the diameter of a reinforcing bar designated N12?
A. 1 m
B. 1 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 12 m

Question 101. On what type of sites can slabs on ground be constructed?
A. Class A and Class S sites
B. All sites
C. Class M and Class H sites
D. Class S and Class P sites

Question 102. What is the most common and easiest slab to construct?
A. Slab on ground
B. Footing slab
C. Stiffened raft slab
D. Waffle raft slab

Question 103. Which of the following footing slabs is most suited to sloping sites?
A. Remote from site
B. Connection between slab and footing
C. No connection between slab and footing
D. None of the above
Question 104. Footings on which sites must be designed by an engineer?
A. Class A and Class S sites
B. Class E and Class S sites
C. Class E and Class P sites
D. Class P sites only

Question 105. For ventilation what is the minimum ground clearance from the underside of the beam to FGL?
A. 200 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 250 mm

Question 106.
What does FLW refer to?
A. Footing load width
B. Floor load width
C. Force load of wind
D. Footing length width

Question 107.
What spans can joists be?
A. Single span only
B. Continuous span only
C. Double span
D. Single and continuous span

Question 108.
Which of these is not a joist joint?
A. Dovetail joint
B. Scarf joint
C. Butt joint
D. Timber cleat

Question 109.
Which of these relates to deep floor joists?
A. The height exceeds the width four times
B. The width exceeds the height four times
C. The height exceeds the width twice
D. The width exceeds the height twice

Question 110.
What is the minimum length required for boards in fitted floors?
A. The equivalent of one joist spacing
B. The equivalent of five joist spacings
C. The equivalent of two joist spacings
D. None of the above

Question 111.
Expansion joints are needed on floors that have a continuous width of what measurement?
A. Over 6 m
B. Over 10 m
C. Over 6 mm
D. Over 10 mm

Question 112.
Which of the following is correct?
A. Only machine-driven nails need to be punched.
B. Only hand-driven nails need to be punched.
C. All nails need to be punched.
D. Only nails at butt joints need to be punched.

Question 113.
What is a jack stud?
A. A stud that is longer than a common stud
B. A stud that is shorter than a common stud
C. Either of the above
D. It depends on its purpose

Question 114.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Walls exceeding 2,700 mm in height require multiple rows of noggings.
B. Walls less than 2,700 mm in height require multiple rows of noggings.
C. Walls exceeding 2,700 mm in height require fewer rows of noggings.
D. Walls less than 2,700 mm in height require no noggings at all.

Question 115.
What kind of support does bracing provide?
A. Upwards support for the wall framing
B. Lateral support for the wall framing
C. Both upwards and lateral support for the wall framing
D. Lateral support for the flooring

Question 116.
Which of the following do live loads include?
A. People, moveable items in the building, structural elements of the building
B. Structural elements of the building
C. People and moveable items in the building
D. All wind forces

Question 117.
At what spacing does tiled roofing require studs?
A. Wider spacing than metal roofing
B. Closer spacing than metal roofing
C. The same spacing as metal roofing
D. Spacing is not specified in Australian Standards

Question 118.
Where is the notch when studs have to be braced?
A. In the stud
B. In the bracing
C. In either
D. Notching is not the option

Question 119.
Why can't a jamb stud in an external wall be notched?
A. It carries a lighter load than a common stud
B. It is nail-laminated
C. It carries a heavier load than a common stud
D. It is only a single stud

Question 120.
What does the size of a lintel depend on?
A. The width of the opening only
B. The combination of loads only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Question 121
What are common studs?
A. Vertical members that transfer loads vertically
B. Vertical members that transfer loads horizontally
C. Horizontal members that transfer loads horizontally
D. Horizontal members that transfer loads vertically

Question 122
Where is a large horizontal diaphragm formed?
A. Ceiling and wall
B. Ceiling and floor
C. Walls and floor
D. All of the above

Question 123
Bracing units must be installed at a 90 degree angle to the surfaces facing the wind. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 124
The top plate needs to be reinforced when rafters land on top of plates. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 125
What effect does installing metal straps over plates and fixed to studs have?
A. Reduces the racking force
B. Decreases brace capacity
C. Increases brace capacity
D. Increases the racking force

Question 126.
The Pascal is a unit of pressure. How many Pascals are there in 1 kPa?
A. 500
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 2,000

Question 127
Ceiling joists are spaced according to the material they support. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 128
Which of the following is correct?
A. Strutting beams do not transfer the roof load to load bearing walls.
B. Strutting beams do not support roof members.
C. Strutting beams do not transfer the roof load to a ceiling joist.
D. Strutting beams are not often subject to wind pressure acting on the roof.

Question 129.
Why are strutting beams chamfered?
A. To avoid interference with the ceiling joists
B. To avoid interference with the roof cladding
C. To avoid interference with the underpurlins
D. To avoid interference with ceiling battens

Question 129.
What can be used to fix ceiling joists to hanging beams?
A. Timber battens only
B. Metal joist hanger brackets only
C. Hoop iron straps only
D. All of the above

Question 130.
A hanging beam increases the span of the ceiling joist. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 131.
What is a birdsmouth?
A. A type of cut
B. A type of timber batten
C. A type of wall plate
D. A type of chamfering

Question 132
The closer that struts are to vertical, the more efficient they are. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 133
Why are underpurlins so named?
A. They are fixed under the struts
B. They are fixed under the ceiling joists
C. They are fixed under the rafters
D. They are fixed under the overpurlins

Question 134
What do collar ties have to be fitted with?
A. Every second pair of rafters
B. Every pair of rafters
C. Every third pair of rafters
D. Every pair of ceiling joists

Question 135
What fraction of a rafter's depth might a rafter be birdsmouthed?
A. Half of the rafter's depth
B. A third of the rafter's depth
C. A quarter of the rafter's depth
D. None of the above. A rafter is not birdsmouthed.

Question 136
Ridgeboards make sure that rafter pairs meet at a consistent height. True or false?
A. True
B. False
 
Question 137
Roof trusses are more affected by weather than timber beams. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 138
What is a 'web tie' in a roof truss?
A. A perpendicular bracing for the webs
B. A corner occupied by spiders
C. A lateral bracing for the webs
D. A tie for the top chords

Question 139
Which of the following truss types is most suitable for a sloping ceiling?
A. Creeper truss
B. Scissor truss
C. Hip truss
D. Bowstring truss

Question 140
The house style known as ‘homestead' has a bell truss. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 141
Downward loads on a roof cause compression in the top chords. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 142
Bracing is required for which of the following?
A. Top chords only
B. Bottom chords only
C. Web elements and top chords only
D. All of the above

Question 143
In areas subject to high winds which of the following answers gives the correct upgrading for truss connections?
A. Straps→nails→nail plates
B. Nail plates→straps→nails
C. Nails→nail plates→straps
D. Nail plates→nails→straps

Question 144
Roof trusses can be modified on-site to suit different needs. True or false?
A. True
B. False
 
Question 145
Which of the following tiling material is a naturally occurring rock?
A. Fibre cement shingle
B. Shakes
C. Slate
D. Steel-pressed

Question 146
At what pitch is most metal sheet roofing watertight down to?
A. 5 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 1 degree
D. None of the above

Question 147
Rainwater falling from copper pipes onto galvanised sheeting is likely to cause corrosion. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 148
What is the usual side lap for corrugated roofing?
A. Two laps
B. One lap
C. One and a half laps
D. Two and a half laps

Question 149
Which of the following timber species requires preservative treatment?
A. Cypress pine
B. Eucalyptus
C. Slash pine
D. Redwood

Question 150
Why is timber cladding usually 150 to 200 mm wide?
A. Wider boards than this are prone to splitting
B. This is the best looking size
C. This is the easiest size to cut
D. Wider boards may shrink

Question 151
Which of the following is an imported timber?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Baltic pine
C. Radiata pine
D. Cypress pine

Question 152
What is the usual moisture range of seasoned timber?
A. 20%
B. 15 - 20%
C. 5 - 10%
D. 10 - 15%

Question 153
What allowance should be made for shrinkage?
A. Seasoned timber boards should have an increased overlap.
B. Unseasoned timber boards should have an increased overlap.
C. Seasoned timber boards should have a smaller overlap.
D. Unseasoned timber boards should have a smaller overlap.

Question 154
If timber boards are going to be painted, how should the end joints be protected?
A. Be sealed with mastic only
B. Be painted with a primer at each end only
C. Both the two methods above
D. Be adequately flashed

Question 155
Timber can stand greater stresses than brickwork. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 156
One purpose of eaves and verandahs is to provide weather protection to walls. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 157
Individual timber boards should be nailed together at the overlap. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 158
Brick veneer cladding is load bearing. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 159
Timber reveals are usually fixed into the studs. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Question 160
When should flashing materials be fixed to plywood cladding?
A. After the cladding is fixed
B. While the cladding is being fixed
C. Before the cladding is fixed
D. At any convenient time
 
Question 161
When using plywood cladding, what happens if simple butt joints with a flexible mastic seal are used?
A. They can stop water getting to the frame permanently.
B. They can stop water getting into the edge of the plywood sheet permanently.
C. They will do both of the above.
D. They can eventually allow water into the frame.

Question 162
What can external walls of hardboard cladding be detailed with?
A. A timber stop only
B. A pre-formed metal corner only
C. Both of the above
D. Cut and scribed planks

Question 163
What effect does plywood cladding have when it is used as structural bracing on external walls?
A. Less bracing is required for internal walls
B. More bracing is required for internal walls
C. No bracing is required for internal walls
D. More bracing is required for external walls

Question 164
In brick veneer construction, how is moisture movement through to the timber frame prevented?
A. Ties
B. Weepholes
C. Cavities
D. Membranes

Question 165
What is an 'end bearing'?
A. The section where a lintel lands on brickwork
B. A galvanised steel lintel
C. The opening across brickwork
D. An end beam carrying load

Question 166
What is the purpose of articulation joints?
A. They allow for shrinkage in a building
B. They tie the brickwork to the frame
C. They allow for movement in a building
D. They seal the cavities

Question 167
What is the purpose of window schedules?
A. To help work out the appropriate type of window
B. To work out the appropriate opening size of windows
C. To work out whether to use a timber or aluminium frame
D. To work out the height of a window
 
Question 168
Which of the following window frames is nearly always made of aluminium?
A. Top hung sliding
B. Louvre
C. Horizontal sliding
D. Side hung casement

Question 169. What is the National construction Code(NCC)

Question 170. What classes of structure are classified within the NCC as ‘residential low rise buildings'?

Question 171. Describe class 1 structure(s) as defined by the NCC.

Question 172. What are the main structural principals that apply to the erection/demolition of residential low rise structures ?

Question 173. What industry professionals may be consulted during the planning and construction process?

Question 174. What project documentation may be obtained and analysed to assist the planning and construction process?

Question 175. What materials may be used to build structural and non-structural wall system?

Question 176. What are examples of effective communication skills which can be used when consulting with others ( clients, sub-contractors etc )?