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Is economic growth in the developing world related to growth in the industrialized? countries? The output of a regression analysis that related growth? (in % of Gross Domestic? Product) of the developing countries (y) to the growth of developed countries (x) from 1980 to 2017 is given as:
y = 3.14+0.489x
What is the meaning of the intercept of this linear regression model?
-The intercept is the predicted growth of developed countries in years of 0 growth in developing countries.
-The intercept is the predicted growth of developing countries at year 0.
-The intercept has no meaning as the growth of the developed countries cannot be close to zero.
-The intercept is the predicted growth of developing countries in years of 0 growth in developed countries.
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