Reference no: EM131496063

Question 1: What function enables the controller to check a desired flight plan amendment for potential conflicts?

1. Radar data acquisition and transfer

2. Trial planning

3. Automated radar tracking

4. Trajectory modeling

Question 2: What factors determine the time and distance required to make a speed adjustment?

1. None, they are achieved instantaneously

2. Aircraft configuration, altitude, speed

3. Altitude, VFR conditions, speed

4. Speed, priority, altitude

Question 3: Which system provides for radar input from multiple radar sites?

1. HOCSR

2. FDP

3. RDP

4. CCC

 Question 4: Which of the following was designed to provide automation capability to calculate and update flight plan data?

1. FDP

2. ARTS

3. RDP

4. STARS

Question 5: Which of the following is a major component of the DSR?

1. Computer display channel

2. Radar data processing

3. Radar position console

4. User request evaluation tool

 Question 6: Why are secondary surveillance radar identification techniques preferred over primary?

1. They are more accurate

2. There is zero chance of error

3. They don't require any action by the pilot

4. They don't rely on a working transponder

Question 7: What two systems make up the NAS-A?

1. DSR and STARS

2. FDP and DSR

3. RDP and FDP

4. ARTS and DSR

Question 8: The _____ is a digital radar processor that receives data from the radar site, checks the information to determine the validity and converts the target echoes into a digital format.

1. CCC

2. FDP

3. RDAT

4. CD

Question 9: What is the fourth dimension used by URET in trajectory modeling?

1. Time

2. Altitude

3. Longitude

4. Space

Question 10: Which system uses commercial off the shelf hardware?

1. ARTS II

2. ARTS

3. Common ARTS

4. RDP