Reference no: EM133666040

1. On page 12 of Colonialism/Postcolonialism, Loomba claims: "It might seem that because the age of colonialism is over, and because the descendants of once-colonized peoples live everywhere, the whole world is postcolonial. And yet the term ['postcolonial] has been fiercely contested on many counts. To begin with, the prefix 'post' complicates matters because it implies an 'aftermath' in two senses-temporal, as in coming after, and ideological, as in supplanting. It is the second
implication which critics of the term have found [especially] contestable: if the inequities of colonial rule have not been erased, it is perhaps premature to proclaim the [entire] demise of colonialism." In what way does characterizing the entire world as "postcolonial" insofar as the age of colonialism is over and descendants of formerly colonized peoples live
across the globe rest on confusion over the use of the term "postcolonial"? What does the "post" of "postcolonialism" refer to? And how does the idea of neocolonialism complicate the idea that formerly colonized societies are free of the colonial past? Be sure to answer the following questions in your answer: (1) What are some of the enduring "inequalities" of colonial rule (referred to by Loomba above), and (2) how do these inequalities challenge the idea that the
phenomenon of colonialism has completely met its demise?

2. What is it for a formly colonized people to "decolonialize"? By what avenues does decolonization take place (e.g., linguistic, economic, etc.)? Why would decolonization be necessary if the a formerly colonized territory has been
liberated from colonizers?