Reference no: EM133344569

Question 1: What is the name of the organization credited with promoting construction management as a legitimate and unique area of study at four-year universities?
a. Associated Schools of Construction (ASC)
b. Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology (ABET)
c. Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business (AACSB)
d. Design Build Institute of America (DBIA)

Question 2: What does LEED stand for?
a. Leaders Enriching Environmental Decisions
b. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
c. Light Emitting Energy Drivers
d. None of the above

Question 3: By what specific measurement is construction used as an economic indicator for the U.S. economy?
a. Housing starts
b. Sales and Inventories
c. Monthly sales for retail and food services
d. Annual construction costs

Question 4: By whom was the first form of concrete used?
a. Greeks
b. Egyptians
c. Romans
d. Venetians

Question 5: What is the role of the owner on a construction project?
a. To develop the final building plans, specifications, and construction details
b. To interpret the plans and specifications and prepare cost estimates and time schedules to meet the requirements of the
project
c. To develop the program for the building, define the scope of the project, create the budget, and provide the funding for the
project
d. All of the above

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sectors of the construction industry?
a. Health Care Construction
b. Commercial Building
c. Heavy Civil Construction
d. Industrial Construction

Question 7: Who determines what method of delivery is used on a project?
a. General Contractor
b. Architect
c. Engineer
d. Owner

Question 8: Which of the following is the definition for project scope?
a. Sets the parameters for the work and defines what work needs to be done
b. Sets the budget as identified by the chief estimator
c. A set of guidelines that establishes the budget for the project
d. None of the above

Question 9: Which is not a part of the three-legged stool of construction?
a. Time
b. Cost
c. Quality
d. Efficiency

Question 10: What is the best description of design-build construction?
a. The owner contracts with a design-build entity, which is responsible for the design and construction of the project
b. The owner has the project designed, then a design-build entity takes it to completion
c. The design-build entity designs the project, then sends it to a general contractor for construction
d. The general contractor is only a part of the design-build entity for the construction phases of the project

Question 11: What sums up the role of an area superintendent?
a. Assists the project superintendent on large projects
b. Company's representative at the job site
c. Oversee one specific branch of labor
d. None of the above

Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a project delivery method?
a. Agency CM
b. CM-at-Risk
c. Design-Bid-Build
d. Design-Build

Question 13: Open bidding is required on public projects because ?
a. They are funded by taxpayer dollars
b. They require an invitation to bid
c. They are only available to certain contractors
d. They are funded by private officials

Question 14: Identify the correct pairing of the most common procurement method and selection criteria?
a. Design-build and low-bid selection
b. Design-bid-build and qualifications-based selection
c. Design-build and qualifications and prose selection
d. Design-bid-build and low-bid selection

Question 15: What is the name of the official document that notifies the contractor to start construction?
a. Notice to proceed
b. Startup letter
c. Initiation notice
d. Letter of intent

Question 16: Narrowing the field of offers through the selection of the most qualified proposers on the basis of qualifications is known as:
a. Shortlisting
b. Best value
c. Prequalification
d. Technical proposal

Question 17: Which best describes the weighted criteria evaluation process?
a. Award the project based on high total points for qualitative and price components
b. Award the project based on low total points for qualitative and price components
c. Award the project based on low cost
d. Award the project based on highest qualitative score

Question 18: What is the tool used to reduce the number of bidders on a public project and to increase the quality of the contractor pool?
a. Invitation to bid
b. Prequalification
c. Requirement for proposal statement
d. Detailed list of the company's financial statements

Question 19: In the CSI MasterFormat, which division contains "finishes."
a. Division 6
b. Division 7
c. Division 8
d. Division 9

Question 20: Which of the following contracts is the most common on construction projects?
a. Lump-sum
b. Cost-plus-fee
c. Guaranteed maximum price
d. Unit-priced

Question 21: Which of the following documents expresses the quality of the work that is to be performed?
a. Plans
b. Details
c. Sections
d. Project manual

Question 22: Which of the following contracts is the most common on heavy civil highway-type construction projects?
a. Lump-sum
b. Cost-plus-fee
c. Guaranteed maximum price
d. Unit-priced

Question 23: Which of the following contract types is most popular with design-build project delivery?
a. Lump-sum
b. Cost-plus-fee
c. Guaranteed maximum price
d. Unit-priced

Question 24: Today, when hand-drafted plans are reproduced, the product is referred to as
a. Blueprints
b. Bluelines
c. Vellum drawings
d. CAD plans

Question 25: Which of the following would you NOT expect to find on the drawings when a project is put out for bid?
a. Owner's name
b. Contractor's name
c. Geographical location
d. Sheet index

Question 26: What are three positions that typically make up members of the on-site management team?
a. Estimator, contract administrator, and payroll
b. Superintendent, assistant superintendent, project engineer
c. Project engineer, foreman, estimator
d. Estimator, payroll, human resources

Question 27: Select the best definition of punch list.
a. A process of testing and checking all equipment and systems within the facility at the end of a project.
b. Minor adjustments, repairs, and work items that must be completed
c. The point at which all punch list work has been completed and the owner can occupy or take possession of the new facility
d. Record drawings completed by the contractor and turned over to the owner at the end of the project that identify changes to original plans and specifications

Question 28: What activities usually occur during the mobilization stage?
a. Bidding, permitting, and value engineering
b. Set up field office, secure site, provide and place portable toilets
c. Site work, foundations, basement construction
d. Final documentation, release retainage, owner move-in

Question 29: Select the implied warranty.
a. A warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
b. A warranty that work will be performed in a good and workmanlike manner
c. A warranty that materials will eb new and of good quality
d. A warranty that the work will conform to the requirements of the contract documents

Question 30: Select the correct chronological order of these milestones.
a. Commissioning, certificate of occupancy, owner move-in
b. Substantial completion, final completion, certificate of occupancy
c. Owner move-in, punch out, final inspection
d. Final completion, final inspection, punch out

Question 31: What process optimizes resources to achieve the greatest value for the money being spent?
a. Pre-construction
b. Commissioning
c. Permitting
d. Value-engineering

Question 32: keep track of and manages the completion of all loose ends, minor repairs, and adjustments at the end of the job.
a. Punch list
b. Field Engineers
c. Owners
d. Subcontractors

Question 33: Which of these is NOT of the basic speech acts according to Fernando Flores?
a. Requesting
b. Promising
c. Repeating
d. Asserting

Question 34: How is vulnerability-based trust related to accountability within the team?
a. Team members should only focus on their own tasks and deliverables
b. Team members should check in with one another to see how things are going
c. Team members should concentrate on their own individual success
d. Team members can choose whether or not to answer questions honestly

Question 35: What is an example of effective listening?
a. Making sure you say what you need to regardless of who is talking
b. Answering as soon as you think you know the question
c. Paraphrasing to ensure your understanding
d. Quickly evaluate what someone is saying

Question 36: What is committed speaking?
a. Using non-specific language to convey your point
b. Speaking during a meeting because its expected
c. Moving through your points quickly to expedite communication
d. Speaking with intention and using specific words to convey your exact meaning

Question 37: What is NOT a characteristic of an Integrated Project Leader (IPL)?
a. Has primary accountability for leading the design-build team
b. Always taking over the role of the superintendent on the team
c. Demonstrating a high degree of emotional intelligence
d. Understanding the various design practices and services provided by architects and engineers

Question 38: What is the difference between management and leadership?
a. We manage people and lead things
b. Management rarely comes with a title, but leadership frequently does
c. We lead people and manage things
d. Leadership focuses on the project while management focuses on the team

Question 39: Which one of these is NOT a pre-construction service?
a. Submittals
b. Feasibility studies
c. Conceptual estimating
d. Life-cycle cost analysis

Question 40: Who should perform the constructability review?
a. Owner
b. Contractor
c. Engineer
d. Architect

Question 41: What is a life-cycle cost?
a. Short-term cost projections
b. Cost based on feasibility studies
c. Long-term cost projections for building use
d. Cost to operate a building for one year

Question 42: When does pre-construction take place?
a. After the design is complete
b. Before design is complete and construction begins
c. During the bidding process
d. Prior to the design phase

Question 43: Who benefits most from feasibility studies?
a. Contractor
b. Architect
c. Owner
d. Engineer

Question 44: Which of these is NOT used to build a cost model?
a. Using current data from the project
b. Using historical data from previous projects
c. Estimating based on similar projects
d. Using a model cost database

Question 45: When do you know the true accuracy of your estimate?

a. When the project is complete and all actual costs are known
b. As soon as you complete the estimate
c. As soon as the architect presents you with the engineer's estimate
d. None of the above

Question 46: What is a scope sheet?

a. Identifies all of the items of work to be performed under a specific trade
b. A cut sheet from the specifications
c. Spreadsheet showing all current projects
d. None of the above

Question 47: Which is NOT one of the four preparation steps taken to start the estimating process when competing for a project?
a. Review plans and specs
b. Develop a query list
c. Attend pre bid meeting
d. Contract with subcontractors

Question 48: What are general conditions?
a. Indirect costs incurred to construct a project and run a job
b. The overhead to run the office
c. Costs of direct materials
d. None of the above

Question 49: Which one of the following that is used as resource for price and productivity
a. Newspaper
b. Magazines
c. R.S. Means
d. Search engine

Question 50: What is a construction estimate?
a. Summary of probable costs of materials, labor, and equipment
b. Machine used in the field
c. A type of safety equipment
d. None of the above

Question 51: The mediator's decision is _____ , and an arbitrators decision is ____
a. Binding, Binding
b. Nonbinding, Nonbinding
c. Binding, Nonbinding
d. Nonbinding, Binding

Question 52: The most effective tool for tracking contract and project interactions is:
a. Spreadsheets
b. Log books
c. File cabinets
d. Contract administration software

Question 53: LDs are
a. Lost or damaged: Material that was delivered on site, yet has either been damaged by workers or weather or has been lost/stolen
b. Late decline: If an architect responds to an RFI too slowly, the contractor may proceed as they like without repercussions
c. Liquidated damages: A penalty assessed to the contractor for each day the projects extends beyond the necessary completion date
d. Like design: Where the contractor claims that what has been installed is similar enough to the design that no replacement is necessary

Question 54: What is the name for a physical model or small sample of construction to allow the architect and owner to review the appearance and function of materials, colors, textures, etc.?
a. Submittal
b. Shop drawing
c. Mock-up
d. Model

Question 55: It is best practice for the general contractor to pay the subcontractor:
a. Only once the GC gets paid by the owner
b. On time, despite the owner's timing of payment
c. Within 90 days of invoice
d. Once the project is substantially complete

Question 56: A certain percentage of money owed to the contractor withheld to encourage completion of the project is known as:
a. Withheld payments
b. Retainage
c. Lost wages
d. Lost profit

Question 57: What outside agency might a contractor never have to deal with in the course of construction?
a. Independent testing agencies
b. Marketing agencies
c. Utility companies
d. Fire marshals

Question 58: What is NOT one of the three main issues the superintendent must be concerned with when trying to manage construction operations.
a. Subcontractor coordination
b. Office communication structure
c. Material and equipment deliveries
d. Productivity

Question 59: What is a laydown area?
a. The next area prepped for placing concrete
b. A space designed for mock-up buildings
c. A space set aside for labors who feel faint to lie down
d. A designated storage area on site used for sorting out large orders

Question 60: Why is in important to accurately report hours and cost codes on time cards?
a. If codes are recorded wrong on one time card then nobody gets paid
b. They provide fundamental information needed to track and monitor productivity and labor expenditures
c. Management doesn't trust laborers and requires accurate time cards to verify their actual productivity
d. They provide laborers with a personal record of their earnings so they can dispute management over compensation

Question 61: What is one benefit of a webcam?
a. Other companies can critic how well or poorly your project is going
b. Management can stay in bed longer
c. It can help increase overall owner involvement
d. It can identify blemishes and mistakes on the building that are difficult to see close up

Question 62: What are the three main responsibilities of a superintendent before construction can begin?
a. Set up the field office, organize the job site, and establish the working hours
b. Set up the field office, organize the job site, and clean the tools and equipment
c. Set up the site logistics, organize the documenting process, and establish the working hours
d. Clean the tools and equipment, hire laborers, and set up the site logistics

Question 63: What is an environmental issue that would interfere with the project schedule and cause unexpected delays on the job?
a. Discovering historical or cultural artifacts while excavating
b. Migratory patterns of birds
c. Dusty work areas
d. A baseball field next to the site

Question 64: How do you determine the overall project duration?
a. Add up all the durations created during the scheduling stage
b. Add up all the durations assigned during the scheduling stage and multiply by 0.75 to account for activities occurring simultaneously
c. Complete a forward and backward pass on your network logic diagram
d. Use the length of the project allowed in the contract

Question 65: What is one type of network diagram?
a. Activity-on-date
b. Activity-on-node
c. Activity-on-dot
d. Activity-on-backward pass

Question 66: The forward pass is used to determine the:
a. Late start
b. Early finish
c. Late finish
d. Float

Question 67: The network diagram of choice in the industry is the:
a. AOA network diagram
b. Gantt chart
c. AON network diagram
d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Question 68: Which of the following is NOT a factor when determining what type of schedule to use?
a. Size of the company
b. Project size
c. Requirements in the plans and specs
d. Steel or concrete structure

Question 69: All of the following are stages of building a schedule except?
a. Plotting stage
b. Planning stage
c. Scheduling stage
d. Sequencing stage

Question 70: What is the riskiest element of the project control and project planning?
a. Cost control
b. Estimating productivity
c. Scheduling
d. None of the above

Question 71: What does it mean to forecast in project management?
a. To estimate the weather delays
b. Predict the startup cost of the project
c. To predict the final cost and schedule outcomes on a project while the work is still in progress
d. None of the above

Question 72: The cost or time difference between the actual project performance and the planned project performance is the definition of what?
a. Cost code
b. Variance
c. Escalation
d. Actual costs

Question 73: Periodic predictions stated in reports as to the final cost and schedule outcomes on a project while the work is still going on are known as:
a. Forecasts
b. Delay notices
c. Risks registers
d. None of the above

Question 74: What is an escalation clause?
a. It is usually negotiated into the construction contract when there is suspicion that some pricing component of the estimate is in a high state of flux
b. It is the same thing as a contingency and tries to account for unforeseen conditions
c. It is a clause that covers risks associated with underground utilities, grading, and excavation
d. None of the above

Question 75: What is NOT an example of a source where you might gather field information needed to develop your project controls?
a. Material invoices
b. Requests for information
c. Time cards
d. Subcontractor billing statements

Question 76: All of the following are fundamental objectives of a quality management plan EXCEPT:
a. Do things right the first time
b. Prevent things from going wrong
c. Appoint a quality manager
d. Continually improve the process

Question 77: Which of the following shows the general relationship between the level of quality and cost?
a. When quality increases, cost increases
b. When quality decreases, cost increases
c. When quality remains stagnant, cost increases
d. None of the above

Question 78: What is an MSDS?
a. Maximum Strength Determination System
b. Material Safety Data Sheet
c. Minimal Safety Data Sheet
d. Material Strength Data Sheet

Question 79: The name of the testing agency for construction in the United States is:
a. MSTA
b. MTAS
c. ATSM
d. ASTM

Question 80: Which of the following is NOT a type of personal protection equipment?
a. Body protection
b. Skin protection
c. Head protection
d. Hand Protection

Question 81: Which of the following does NOT describe preparatory inspections?
a. Preparatory inspections are sometimes called pre-inspections
b. Preparatory inspections are designed to check progress
c. Preparatory inspections are never done by personnel employed by the contractor
d. Preparatory inspections make sure everything is ready for the next stage of construction

Question 82: What is the concept behind a zero-punch list?
a. Complete the final walk-through with few or no punch items noted on the list
b. Please every expectation of the owner
c. To have no change orders on the project
d. To ensure timeliness of deliveries

Question 83: Which is NOT a risk mitigation strategy?
a. Risk retention
b. Risk delivery
c. Risk abatement
d. Risk allocation

Question 84: Which best describes a latent design defect?
a. Change in design standards
b. Noncompliance with design standards
c. Incomplete design that delays construction
d. Unknown flaw in design that is revealed after construction

Question 85: When is a risk analysis for a project NOT required?
a. You are familiar with owner
b. You have performed on similar projects multiple times
c. It is not stated in the general or supplemental conditions
d. A risk analysis should always be done

Question 86: What risk does the contractor have the least control over?
a. Construction
b. Financing
c. Political / legal / regulatory
d. Environmental

Question 87: Who is likely to create a joint venture?
a. Contractor and subcontractor
b. Two or more general contractors
c. Chief estimator and senior project manager
d. Subcontractors and owner

Question 88: What should be paramount when considering construction risks?
a. Materials
b. Safety
c. Labor availability
d. Theft issues

Question 89: Which two create the 6th and 7th dimensions of BIM
a. Schedule and estimate
b. Material data and cost data
c. Sustainability and facility management
d. Means and methods

Question 90: How is a central repository approach different from the distributed repository approach?
a. The distributed repository approach is still a theory and is considered not feasible by many people in the construction industry
b. A central repository approach consists of a collection of separate databases which a BIM model can link to
c. A central repository approach consists of one database while a distributed repository approach is a collection of separate databases
d. The distributed repository approach links all information of a BIM model to one database

Question 91: What is clash detection?
a. A strategy used to determine how effectively members from different trades will get along with one-another during the construction phase
b. A process for effectively identifying unintended conflicts between material or trade interfaces in a 3D project model
c. The process of organizing drawings in a systematic fashion so one can easily find the details needed to construct the project
d. Creating lift-drawings between different scopes within the drawing set

Question 92: What does the term interoperability mean?
a. Restricting the capability of a system to interact with other systems in order to be more efficient
b. The capability of a system to interact with other systems without access or implementation limitations or restrictions
c. The process of creating a 3D video display of a computer-generated virtual reality environment
d. The process of linking an estimate and a schedule to a BIM model

Question 93: What is a BIM model?
a. A 2D model of a 2D set of drawing documents
b. A digital representation of the physical and functional characteristics of a building displayed as a 3D model
c. A 3D model of a building without digital representation of the physical and functional characteristics
d. A 2D set of drawings for combined for differing trades

Question 94: When did CAD start making its way into the market place?
0 a 1960s
0 b 1990s
0 c 1970s
0 d 2000s

Question 95: What is the triple bottom line?
a. Measuring business success by financial performance, environmental factors, and social factors
b. Making sure the project comes in under budget, on time, and meets the owner's expectations
c. Tracking the budgets of the contractor, architect, and engineer
d. Analyzing the conceptual estimate, final cost, and life-cycle analysis

Question 96: Which of these is NOT a green building material?
a. Reclaimed material
b. Disposable material
c. Local material
d. Rapidly renewable material

Question 97: Which of these is NOT a principle of sustainable building design?
a. Protect and conserve water
b. Enhance indoor environmental quality
c. Using the least expensive heating and cooling options
d. Optimize operational practices

Question 98: Which of these is a level of LEED certification?
a. Bronze
b. Compliant
c. Platinum
d. Green

Question 99: Define Life-Cycle Cost Analysis (LCCA).
a. Determining the most cost-effective option among different alternatives
b. Determining which products are the least expensive in the short-term
c. Determining which options will keep the project on schedule
d. Determining which options will have the fewest change orders

Question 100: What does the acronym LEED stand for?
a. Leadership on Enterprising Environmental Design
b. Leadership on Energy and Environmental Design
c. Leadership on Energy and Electrical Design
d. Leadership on Electricity and Efficient Design