What assumption replaces diminishing marginal products

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Question: In the short run, neoclassical economics assumes diminishing marginal products. Explain what this means. What is the significance of this assumption (i.e. what does it do, what is its function in the analysis)? In the long run the assumption of diminishing marginal products does not hold. Why not? What assumption replaces diminishing marginal products? What do these assumptions indicate about the political aims of neoclassical economics?

Reference no: EM133341615

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