Tricking the owner had simply stolen the items directly

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Reference no: EM132232166

We have seen a few instances where the fact that a thief tricked an owner into handing over goods in exchange for something like a forged check means that the thief can pass on title to a bonafide purchaser.

This would not be the case if the thief instead of tricking the owner had simply stolen the items directly (stolen a ring rather than bought a ring with a forged check for instance).

Does this distinction make sense to you?

Reference no: EM132232166

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