Should the united states have a similar standard

Reference no: EM133239854

Question: As of 2005, Britain's highest court declared that evidence obtained through torture - regardless of who did the torturing or in what country it occurred - was not admissible in British courts.

Do you agree with the British ruling, or do you think it should be acceptable for British prosecutors to use the evidence as long as British officials were not involved in the torture?

Should the United States have a similar standard?

Reference no: EM133239854

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