Should police be permitted to use the tactic if they have

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Question: The "question first, warn later" procedure condemned in Missouri v. Seibert (discussed in this chapter) involved a police department that used the procedure in a deliberate attempt to circumvent Miranda. Should police be permitted to use the tactic if they have a reason for doing so, other than to get incriminating statements from the suspect? If so, what should the police be required to show about their motivation?

Reference no: EM133428052

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