Ratio of skilled labor and unskilled labor

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Why can it be suggested that the fact that the ratio of skilled labor/unskilled labor has risen in almost all U.S. industries in recent years (and not just in traded goods industries) lends support to the view that increased inequality in the United States is not primarily due to increased Heckscher-Ohlin-type trade? How might you counter this suggestion?

Reference no: EM13894144

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