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A) RFC Corp. has announced a $1 dividend. If RFC’s price last price cum-dividend is $50, what should its first ex-dividend price be (assuming perfect capital markets)? Why?
B) Does your answer change in imperfect markets, i.e in the presence of taxes and bankruptcy costs?
Please show work for part A and B
Write paragraphs explaining to an accountant any issues with how this term is being applied in this context.
How does the put–call parity formula for a currency futures option differ from the put–call parity formula for an option on a currency?
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