Option for definitively managing this patient condition

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A 27-year-old woman presents with right knee pain over the last 3 weeks. The pain is moderate in severity but makes any physical activity that involves bending her knee extremely uncomfortable. Her pain worsens with running and squatting, in particular. The patient has no history of medical conditions nor does she have any immediate family member with a similar condition. At the office, her vitals are normal. On physical examination, there is localized pain over the right anterior knee. There are no passive or active movement limitations at her knee joint. Erythema, swelling, and crepitations are not present. Which of the following is the best option for definitively managing this patient's condition? Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) Intra-articular steroid injections Intra-articular glycosaminoglycan polysulfate injections Quadriceps strengthening.

Reference no: EM133604848

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