Nonworking poor should not be treated better than lowest

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Public Assistance is rooted in the 16th Century British system of "the nonworking poor should not be treated better than the lowest- wage earners." Do you think we are still operating under the same premise of the U.S. nonworking poor not being treated better than the lowest-wage earners? Why or Why not? What are the benefits and detriments of the current system in the U.S.? 

Reference no: EM13199018

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