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No-fault divorce do the implicit price of divorce

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In the U.S. during the late 20th century, no-fault divorce laws became the norm in states. Ignore for the sake of this problem all the other factors that influence the marriage decision, what does the move to no-fault divorce do the implicit price of divorce? What would be your prediction about the effect of this change in the implicit price would have on the quality and quantity of marriages and divorces. If in the next decade, states were to repudiate no-fault divorce, would you predict a change in the quality and quantity of marriage and divorce?

 

Reference no: EM13973520

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