Is the same true for the possessive have

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Question: Consider the following data from American English. We know that auxiliary have originates in Perf position within PerfP, below NegP (according to our hierarchy of projections). Is the same true for the possessive have? Where does it originate, and does it move? (3) a. I have had a horrible day. b. I have never had a pencil case like that! c. Have you seen my backpack? d. *Have you a pencil?

Reference no: EM133389969

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