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Is the american rule fair

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Reference no: EM133247537

Is the American Rule Fair?

The American rule says that, in general, a landlord gives a tenant the right to possess and use the leased premises, but the landlord does not guarantee that the tenant will have actual possession of the leased premises. What is the justification for that rule? Should tenants not expect to get actual possession of the leased premises? Does this rule make sense? 

Reference no: EM133247537

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