Is speaking with a universal voice

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Struggling to answer the following set of questions. Wanted to see how others would answer them academically. They all relate to one another between the topic of beauty. 1. Briefly explain how a disinterested liking for a beautiful artwork differs from an interested liking for a sensory delight e.g. chocolate. 2. What is the connection between the disinterested liking for the beautiful and Kant's view that in making a judgment of beauty one speaks with a "universal voice"? 3. Is speaking with a "universal voice" a prediction of universal agreement? Why or why not? 4. How can there be standards of beauty without rules of beauty according to Kant?

Reference no: EM133528035

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