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Is explanation for such interaction credible or not

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Discussion 1: How does Descartes define his two substances (the ones that make him an ontological dualist)? What arguments does he use to show that these are really very different from one-another, and yet apparently work together in some fashion? Is his explanation for such interaction credible or not? Why or why not? Be as specific as you can.

Reference no: EM132921215

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