How does the gini ratio relate to the lorenz curve

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1. How does the Gini ratio relate to the Lorenz curve? Why can't the Gini ratio exceed 1? What is implied about the direction of income inequality if the Gini ratio declines from 0.42 to 0.35? How would one show that change of inequality in the Lorenz diagram?

2. Why is the lifetime distribution of income more equal than the distribution in any specific year?

Reference no: EM131244191

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