How can he defend that intellectual pleasures are valuable

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Question: Mill distinguishes pleasures between higher/intellectual pleasures and lower/pleasures of sensation. Think of some intellectual pleasures (like reading, learning something new, debating, studying) and some pleasures of sensation (like napping, watching television, intoxication, sex). Many people, when given free time, seem to prefer the pleasures of sensation and opt to use their free time indulging in those pleasures rather than the intellectual pleasures. How would Mill respond?

How can he defend that intellectual pleasures are more valuable--especially since many intelligent people seem to pick sensational pleasures over intellectual ones? Support your answer with evidence from the text.

Reference no: EM133251382

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