Reference no: EM133268719

"Imagine that you are a business owner trying to get access to cash to finance your inventory. You don't really want to borrow money from a bank and pay interest. So instead you just delay paying your bills; as a matter of policy, you pay each bill 120 days (i.e., four months) after you receive it. That means that you get to hold onto the money that you owe your suppliers for four months . . . interest free! Your suppliers tolerate it, even though it means that they incur the costs of serving you, and don't get the money to pay those costs for four months . . . sometimes having to finance that themselves by taking out a bank loan against their receivables."

Does this somehow violate the first formulation of the categorical imperative (Act only in accordance with that maxim through which you can at the same time will that it become a universal law)? How can you tell?