Foreclosure but the corporation

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The corporation defendant consented to a judgement against it. The issue was whether its owner/director, Smith, was personally liable. The defendant corporation provided cabinets for Smith's personal residence. The transaction was with the defendant corporation. The house went into foreclosure but the corporation was owed $250,000. Smith did not give any personal guarantee; he owed $250,000 to the defendant corporation for the cabinets.

Is this a case in which the Courts would "lift the corporate veil"? Why or why not?

Reference no: EM132345060

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