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Explain the church prohibition on use of condoms

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Considering the Doctrine of Double Effect, how would a natural law theorist explain the church's prohibition on the use of condoms to prevent pregnancy but the approval of their use in parts of the world where the spread of HIV/AIDS is an increasing epidemic? Can you think of an unrelated scenario in which the Doctrine of Double Effect proves problematic for the natural law theorist?

 

 

Reference no: EM133222775

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