Explain despite initial appearances to the contrary

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Question: There are aspects of Tawney's approach to economic inequality (i.e., "inequality of circumstances") that make him seem like he might be a sufficientarian, rather than an egalitarian, in this area. Would that be correct, or is Tawney ultimately an economic egalitarian, despite initial appearances to the contrary? Explain.

Reference no: EM133528279

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