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Orange, Inc. is a well-known designer and manufacturer of cell phones, computers, tablets and their associated software and operating systems. Suppose that Orange, Inc. is financed with 100% equity and has a market value of $423 billion. Suppose also that Orange has a WACC of 7%. Investment bankers have approached Orange's CFO and proposed that "Orange take advantage of historically low debt rates" by issuing bonds with a market value of $100 billion and using the proceeds to re-purchase $100 billion in equity from shareholders. Suppose that due to Orange's large free cash flows the bonds would be almost risk free and have a beta of 0.1. Assume that the market risk premium is 5% and the risk free rate is 2%. The investment bankers have used the WACC formula to argue that including debt in Orange's capital structure will "lower its overall cost of capital" from 7% to 5.9% because Orange can issue (almost) risk free debt. This debt, they argue, is much cheaper than equity. That is, their calculation of the ‘new' WACC is:
[The bankers correctly note that while Orange is extremely profitable, its effective tax rate in the U.S. (the relevant jurisdiction) is zero due to a variety of initiatives that the company has taken to shield its income from taxation and therefore does not impact the WACC]. Are the bankers correct that Orange can lower its cost of capital by replacing $100B in equity with $100B in bonds? Please use the WACC formula as the basis of your answer.
Finance is about Gunns Ltd, a company in dealing with forestry products in Australia. The company has also been listed in Australian Stock Exchange. As many companies producing forestry products, even Gunns Ltd is facing various problems. Due to the ..
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