Does gdp represent a violation of that equivalency

Reference no: EM13199232

Suppose the only firm in an economy produces $10 worth of final goods in a year and only sells $9 of goods that year. We know that GDP can be equivalently be thought of as either total spending on new goods and services in an economy, or as total production of goods and services in an economy. Does this represent a violation of that equivalency? Why or why not?

Reference no: EM13199232

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