Does drug use violate somehow the categorical imperative

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Assignment:

Even before we go through the readings, we no doubt already have views on the positive and negative aspects of present-day drug policy and drug use. For example, using our new terminology: Is drug use a purely self-regarding action over which government ought to have no concern; is it a detrimental other-regarding action requiring the intervention of law enforcement; or is it merely a case of contingent harm not requiring government action, annoying to some, not so to others, etc. Does drug use violate somehow the categorical imperative? Anyway, in a very casual post please explain your initial views on this topic on the Initial Thoughts about Drug Policy board. Then respond to two other students' posts with either positive or critical (nice critical) comments.

Reference no: EM133567508

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