Does aquinas proof in any way suffer for his not being

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Questions: We can inquire as to whether the Being proved by Aquinas in proof 3 might be the universe itself. In proof 5 he implicitly eliminates this possibility by proving the existence of a Being who is both intelligent and purposeful. I nevertheless find it puzzling that Aquinas refers to the possibility of multiple necessary Beings near the end of proof 3. This would seem to compromise monotheism.

In both proofs 1 and 2 the conclusions are based on the shared assumption between Aquinas and his readers that infinite regress is impossible. Interestingly then there is a minority position in contemporary epistemology (philosophy of knowledge) that endorses infinite regress as a strategy for justifying our basic beliefs.

In proof 1 Aquinas refers to motion in general. Following Aristotle, what he really means is change - which includes motion as a displacement in space in our customary sense. Four centuries later, Newton distinguished between rest/uniform motion and accelerated motion. There is no physical difference between an object at rest and an object in constant or uniform motion (no change in velocity or direction). Does Aquinas' proof in any way suffer for his not being aware of this fact about motion?

Reference no: EM133441958

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