Does a combined answer make sense

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The Glorious Revolution in 1688 was important to the American colonies. Watson argues that the "Glorious Revolution left its deepest mark in America on New York" because it caused Leisler's Revolt which led "English leaders" to conclude "that parliament alone was supreme within the empire." (Watson, 99-100) Or was Nelson more persuasive that the Glorious Revolution's effect was economic because it started a financial revolution that allowed Britain to create public debt which increased the size of the English Navy and allowed Britain to dominate the New World? Or does a combined answer make sense?

Reference no: EM133666016

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