Reference no: EM131529196

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of management planning?

A. Helps an organization anticipate the future

B. Is both tactical and strategic

C. Includes staffing

D. Is a continuous process

2. Which of the following statements pertains to the purpose of public health surveillance and how it is implemented?

A. Monitoring changes in disease agents through laboratory testing

B. Watches for global epidemics

C. Defines conditions as "pandemic" when incidence and prevalence levels reach predetermined levels

D. Supplies a network of public health staff to monitor global health conditions

3. Effective communication engagement requires which of the following processes?

A. Establishment of an organizational structure that ensures that all members have similar opportunities to influence the processes and outcomes of a designated group

B. Good relations with the press and other public media

C. Having local public health meetings that synchronize agendas with the respective state and federal government agendas

D. Keeping all public health employees informed of the latest disease projections

4. Statutory limitations in public health are imposed by whom?

A. An entity's enabling legislation

B. The Department of Public Health

C. The Federal Government

D. The Director of Public Health

5. Which of the following may be included in a definition of epidemiology?

A. Application of study data to control health problems

B. A subject taught in medical schools

C. The study of epidemics, their history, and future potentials

D. Originated with Florence Nightingale's research in bacteriology

6. An indicator of earnings management is the:

A. inventory costs on the first-in, first-out basis, regardless of the physical flow of the goods.

B. use of the straight-line method of depreciation for all fixed assets.

C. continued overestimation of the useful lives and residual values of fixed assets.

D. front-end loading of expenses.

7. Company X does not capitalize an asset leased from Company Y because it is not required to do so under GAAP. In analyzing Company X, one would capitalize the leased asset when:

A. GAAP permits the option of doing so.

B. the benefits of leasing an asset outweigh those of purchasing it.

C. Company Y does not want to capitalize the leased asset.

D. Company X assumes the risks and rewards associated with the leased asset.

8. An analyst uses analytical judgment primarily to understand:

A. pro forma financial statements.

B. generally accepted accounting principles.

C. the economic reality that underlies the financial disclosures.

D. the nominal dollar concept of capital maintenance.

9. Which of the following situations would cause analysts to be alarmed?

A. An increase in the cash collected as a percentage of revenues.

B. A decrease in cash collected from customers compared to that paid to suppliers.

C. An increase in cash collected from customers compared to that paid to suppliers.

D. A decrease in the cash paid as a percentage of cost of goods sold

10. A financially distressed entity's balance sheet would most likely consist of:

A. immaterial amounts of current assets and a substantial amount of long-term assets.

B. substantial amounts of long-term debt and a relatively small and non-productive long- term asset base.

C. large amounts of both current assets and current liabilities.

D. sufficient revenues but insufficient earnings.

11. There has been a continuous rise in the cost of health care in the U.S. Many things have contributed to that rise, but one thing generally NOT identified as a cause is:

A. new technology.

B. people living longer.

C. new cures for diseases.

D. defensive medicine.

12. A high intensity case-mix for a hospital would mean that the hospital:

A. would be paid less money because its costs are higher.

B. gets sicker patients.

C. has a higher admission rate.

D. accepts only those referrals from other hospitals that are high cost and/or complex cases.

13. An integrated delivery system (IDS) is a complex organization. Which one of these key characteristics is NOT true of an IDS?

A. Convenient delivery sites are developed in close proximity.

B. Services are provided along a continuum of care.

C. The organization is owned or affiliated with an HMO.

D. Specialty managed care, rather than acute care, is emphasized.

14. Total Quality Management (TQM):

A. although developed for the health care industry, is now widely used in many industries, including the automotive industry.

B. is most applicable to open-panel HMOs.

C. focuses on improving standards.

D. uses very simple and basic techniques that any MCO should be able to accomplish.

15. Which of these is NOT associated with the federal government?

A. HIPAA

B. NAIC

C. COBRA

D. CHAMPUS

E. ERISA

16. Management strategies regarding desired relationships with labor organizations should complement planning as part of:

A. the business plan.

B. a non-union policy plan.

C. overall policy development.

D. the organization's mission statement.

17. Health care training would commonly include:

A. bilingual classes.

B. nutrition classes for employees.

C. patient safety.

D. review of the health care organization's corporate filings.

18. Hospitals and other health care organizations are credentialed by:

A. ACHCE

B. Department of Human Services

C. JCAHO

D. Better Business Bureau

E. AmericanHospital Association

19. The components of a JCAHO acceptable performance appraisal system include all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. job descriptions identifying duties and required competencies.

B. a performance appraisal process and supporting documents.

C. bulletins on new regulations pertinent to health care organizations.

D. competency assessment checklists.

20. Health care HR managers are NOT responsible for:

A. recruiting.

B. employee relations.

C. compensation and benefits.

D. employee counseling.