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An economist, after the completion of ECOS3002, decided to see the link between development and corruption and has run the following cross- country regression:
CPIi = a0 + a1GDPi + a2Xi +ei
Where CPIi is the corruption perception index for country i taken from the Transparency International, GDPi is the GDP of country i, Xi is a set of variables that includes population, country size, distance from the equator, ethnicity, language, and law and order indicator, and ei is the error term that includes country specific unobservable. Her/his result shows that a1 is positive and statistically different from zero.
Based on this, s/he has concluded that it is the level of development that determines corruption. Do you agree with her/his conclusion? Why or why not?
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