Congressional statute authorizes federal government

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Question

Assume that a congressional statute authorizes the federal government to exercise eminent domain to acquire property for new post offices. That is, the statute enables the government to force private land owners to sell their land to the federal government if it cannot acquire it through negotiated agreement. The government wants land owned by Farmer Filburn, and begins eminent domain proceedings against the parcel on which the government wishes to place the postal facility. Filburn claims that the statute is unconstitutional. He points out that nothing in Article I gives to Congress the power of eminent domain. Will Farmer Filburn likely prevail on his claim?

Reference no: EM133578850

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