Reference no: EM132596712
Answer these multiple questions below. No explanation needed. Make sure the answers are correct.
1. ___________ concerns the extent to which jobs are specialized.
A. Division of labor
B. Departmentalization
C. Span of control
D. A and B
2. ___________ is the process in which an organization is structurally divided by combining jobs in departments according to some shared characteristic or basis.
A. Structuring
B. Departmentalization
C. Specialization
D. Functionalizing
3. Which of the following organizational forms typically would have the least redundancy in positions?
A. Customer
B. Functional
C. Geographic
D. Product
4. In large organizations, ___________ arrangements are advantageous because physical separation of activities makes centralized coordination difficult.
A. customer
B. functional
C. geographic
D. product
5. The ___________ form of organization allows personnel to develop total expertise in researching, manufacturing, and distributing a product line.
A. customer
B. functional
C. geographic
D. product
6. In a ___________ organization, each product unit can share the specialized resource with other units, rather than duplicating it to provide independent coverage for each.
A. customer based
B. functional
C. matrix
D. product based
7. Benefits of decentralization include _________.
A. increased autonomy
B. increased competition
C. its impact on professional development
D. All of the above
8. Centralized authority may be preferred when _________.
A. training costs to support decentralization are excessive
B. delegation is seen by management as a loss of control
C. decentralization is perceived as creating competition
D. A and B
9. James owns a business which provides a service and whose customers demand relatively homogeneous services and have little disposition to participate in the delivery of those services. James's organization may be best suited for management using _________.
A. mechanistic principles
B. organic principles
C. sociotechnical principles
D. B and C
10. A keiretsu is an example of a ___________ organization.
A. mechanistic
B. organic
C. virtual
D. A and C
11). In the classic model of communication the ___________ is the carrier of the message.
A. code
B. moderator
C. medium
D. vehicle
12. One-way communication does not allow _________.
A. for face-to-face communication
B. feedback
C. effectiveness as an outcome
D. noise to enter the communication process
13. The communication model applies to ___________ communication.
A. all
B. primarily vertical
C. primarily horizontal
D. primarily diagonal
14. Of the four formal communications channels, studies suggest that ___________ is typically the most ineffective.
A. upward
B. downward
C. horizontal
D. diagonal
15. The following are ordered from highest to lowest levels of information richness.
A. Face-to-face, telephone, memo, general email
B. General email, telephone, memo, face-to-face
C. Face-to-face, memo, telephone, general email
D. Video conference, memos, faxes, telephone
16. Studies have indicated that information traveling in a grapevine is typically ___________ accurate.
A. less than 25%
B. less than 50%
C. more than 50%
D. at least 75%
17. Studies have found that in a typical day ___________ of a manager's communications occur in face-to-face interactions.
A. less than 25%
B. less than 50%
C. over 50%
D. over 75%
18. Problems that arise when managers attempt to communicate with other people can be traced to _________.
A. perceptual differences
B. interpersonal style differences
C. organizational style differences
D. Both A and B
19. Michael wants to improve his interpersonal communication. You may recommend that he _________.
A. increase his exposure and the amount of feedback he hears and receives
B. decrease his exposure and the amount of feedback he hears and receives
C. decrease his exposure and increase the amount of feedback he hears and receives
D. increase his exposure and decrease the amount of feedback he hears and receives
20. A manager that is unable to open up to subordinates but is open to feedback is exhibiting a ___________ style.
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
21. A decision may be characterized as nonprogrammed when it ________________.
A. is novel and unstructured
B. is made without the use of computer models
C. may be addressed through policy
D. is difficult
22. Which of the following is a programmed decision?
A. Selecting a new CEO
B. Scheduling employees for overtime
C. Determining the location for a new sales office
D. Developing a new product line expansion
23. Nonprogrammed decisions are typically handled most at what management level of the organization?
A. First-level supervisors
B. Middle management
C. Upper management
D. All of the above
24. The decision-making process depicted in the text _______________.
A. is a sequential process rather than a fixed procedure
B. is intended to be applied most often for programmed decisions
C. starts with the identification of problems
D. ensures excellent decisions will be made
25. Problem identification may be hindered by _________.
A. perceptual problems
B. defining problems in terms of solutions
C. identifying symptoms as problems
D. All of the above
26. Perceptual issues when identifying problems ________.
A. rarely occur
B. may cause negative information to be selectively perceived as to distort its meaning
C. may be defined as identifying symptoms as problems
D. are typically associated with crisis type decisions
27. Problems are usually classified as one of three types: __________.
A. programmed, nonprogrammed, and hybrid
B. nonprogrammed, routine, and hybrid
C. opportunity, crisis, and routine
D. opportunity, crisis, and procedural
28. A manager states "Our problem is a 32-percent decline in sales." The manager has _____.
A. been influenced by selective perception
B. identified a symptom as the problem
C. defined the solution for the problem
D. stated the problem in a quantitative and therefore measurable fashion
29. Scenario analysis is ____________.
A. an intense examination of changes in the external environment
B. a method used to develop contingency plans
C. a means to focus management attention on past practices to find the best solution
D. a processes to help
30. Risk describes __________.
A. the situation when the decision maker has no knowledge of outcome probabilities
B. the situation when the decision maker has knowledge of alternatives but not their likely outcomes
C. a situation when the decision maker has some probabilistic estimate of the outcomes of each alternative
D. a decision making condition that is typically avoided by management
31. Three steps have been associated with implementing change: ________.
A. unfreezing, instill new learning, refreezing
B. freeze in place, instill new learning, refreeze
C. thaw past entrenchments, warm to change, boil up desire to change
D. None of the above
32. Change agents can be _________.
A. external to the organization
B. internal to the organization
C. external and internal change teams
D. All of the above
33. James believes that a proposed curriculum change is not, as announced, an attempt to align classes with external expectations but a means to covertly reduce costs. James becomes a vocal opponent of the proposal. This form of resistance to change would be classified as _________.
A. parochial self-interest
B. misunderstanding and lack of trust
C. different assessments
D. low tolerance for change
34. Cindy believes that a proposal will not increase profitability but will in fact increase costs and decrease profit potential. Cindy lobbies against the change. This form of resistance to change would be classified as _________.
A. parochial self-interest
B. misunderstanding and lack of trust
C. different assessments
D. low tolerance for change
35. Which of the following is not an effective to decrease employee resistance to change?
A. Education and communication
B. Negotiation and agreement
C. Manipulation
D. None of the above
36. When external change agents are charged with the diagnosis of the problem within the change model _________.
A. they often become immersed in theory and various conceptual frameworks that are less realistic than the managers would like
B. they often tend to see each problem separately
C. due to experience typically are better than top managers
D. A and B
37. The attitude survey is a useful diagnostic approach if the potential focus of change is _________.
A. small units within the organization
B. the total organization
C. the individual
D. All of the above
38. The depth of an intended change refers to _________.
A. the iceberg analogy of the organization and specifically the magnitude of the hidden organization
B. the scope and intensity of the organizational change efforts
C. the number of organizational layers impacted by the change effort
D. the number of individuals involved in implementing the change
39. The Hawthorne studies were instrumental in our understanding of ___________ change techniques.
A. structural
B. behavioral
C. technology
D. configuration
40. Heather's restaurant has implemented a new order entry system that not only automatically posts and tracks orders in the kitchen but also automatically generates replenishment orders. This new level of automation has had the impact of increasing employee autonomy. The introduction of this order entry system would be considered a ___________ change.
A. structural
B. behavioral
C. technology
D. configuration