Reference no: EM13973324
Q1. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
a. Are based on historical trends
b. Can be derived from the WBS
c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs
Q2. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:
a. Management by Objectives
b. Management by Exception
c. Management by Walking Around
d. Management by Control Limits
Q3. A key characteristic of an effective project team is that:
a. Members have graduate degrees in project management
b. Members come from the same professional background
c. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project
d. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order
Q4. An autocratic management style:
a. Is effective in most project management situations
b. Is effective in highly routine efforts
c. Is effective in high flux, state-of-the-art projects
d. Will lead to the tyranny of the majority
Q5. An effective project manager must:
a. Tell his team members what to do
b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
c. Be focused on achieving results
d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail
Q6. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.
a. true
b. false
Q7. Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:
a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum customer in put
c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions
d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input
Q8. Which of the following is an example of a project?
a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
b. Capacity planning
c. Submitting travel and expense reports
d. Sending monthly reports to top management
Q9. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
a. Benefit/cost analysis
b. WBS
c. Earned Value analysis
d. Fast tracking
Q10. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.
a. true
b. false
Q11. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
d. Show actual versus planned schedule status
Q12. Good functional requirements
a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do
d. Are created after development of the technical specifications
Q13. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
a. $750
b. $1,000
c. $1,250
d. $1,333
Q14. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
a. true
b. false
Q15. Scope creep means:
a. Needs emergence and identification
b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution
c. Migration of project needs to requirements
d. Imprecise scope statement
Q16. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
a. true
b. false
Q17. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
a. Tasks
b. Deliverables
c. Interrelationships among activities
d. Cost of the project
Q18. Bottom-up estimates:
a. Are based on historical trends
b. Can be derived from the WBS
c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
d. a and c
Q19. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?
a. SMART
b. KISS
c. MBO
d. LOWBALLING
Q20. Configuration management is a:
a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs
b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements
c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input
Q21. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:
a. Scope statement definition
b. WBS construction
c. Rapid prototyping
d. Configuration management
Q22. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
a. Bottom-up estimates
b. Top-down estimates
c. Expert judgment cost estimates
d. Order of magnitude estimates
Q23. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.
a. true
b. false
Q24. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.
a. true
b. false
Q25. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:
a. A resource Gantt chart
b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
c. A resource ogive
d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)
Q26. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:
a. Shorten the critical path
b. Shorten the free float
c. Spend more money
d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver
Q27. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:
a. Team members are full of ego
b. Team members are selected from the same functional area
c. Team members have divided loyalties
d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers
Q28. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for:
a. Project estimation
b. Project scheduling
c. WBS construction
d. Project selection
Q29. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.
a. true
b. false
Q30. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
a. Staff empowerment
b. Technical requirements of the project
c. Theory X management principles
d. Theory Y management principles
Q31. Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle.
a. true
b. false
Q32. The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called:
a. Work package
b. Code of accounts
c. Budget baseline
d. Change control level
Q33. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
d. To re-baseline the project budget
Q34. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.
a. true
b. false
Q35. A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of:
a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
b. b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
Q36. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk deflection
c. Risk acceptance
d. Contingency planning
Q37. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.
a. true
b. false
Q38. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?
a. 0.5 hours
b. 1.5 hours
c. 2.5 hours
d. 8.5 hours
Q39. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.
a. true
b. false
Q40. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.
a. true
b. false